UPSC Civil services Preliminary examination 2025 with detailed explanation

SET - A

Question 1: With reference to investments, consider the following:

I. Bonds             

II. Stocks         

III. Hedge Funds         

IV. Venture Capital

How many of the above are treated as Alternative Investment Funds?

(a) Only one   

(b) Only two   

(c) Only three                               

(d) All the four

Answer: b

Explanation:

Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) are privately pooled investment vehicles which collect funds from investors, whether Indian or foreign, for investing as per a defined investment policy for the benefit of its investors.

• The SEBI (Alternative Investment Funds) Regulations, 2012, govern AIFs in India.
• Bonds and Stocks are generally considered traditional investments, not typically categorized as AIFs themselves, although AIFs might invest in them.
• Hedge Funds are a classic example of Alternative Investment Funds. They use various strategies to generate returns.
• Venture Capital funds are also a type of Alternative Investment Fund, specifically focusing on investing in start-ups and early-stage companies.

Therefore, Hedge Funds and Venture Capital are treated as Alternative Investment Funds.

Question 2: Which of the following are the sources of income for the Reserve Bank of India?

I. Buying and selling Government Bonds

II. Buying and selling foreign currency

III. Pension fund management

IV. Lending to private companies

V. Printing and distributing currency notes

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) I and II only                             

(b) I, III and IV               

(c) I, III, IV and V                         

(d) I, II and V

Answer: (a) I and II

Explanation:

I. Buying and selling Government Bonds: The RBI conducts Open Market Operations (OMO) by buying and selling government securities (bonds) to manage liquidity in the economy. This is a major source of income/expense for the RBI.

II. Buying and selling foreign currency: The RBI manages India's foreign exchange reserves and intervenes in the forex market by buying and selling foreign currency. This activity can result in gains or losses, contributing to its income.

III. Pension fund management: The RBI does not manage pension funds. This is typically done by pension fund regulatory bodies or private fund managers.

IV. Lending to private companies: The RBI primarily lends to commercial banks (through repo operations, MSF, etc.), not directly to private companies.

V. Printing and distributing currency notes: The RBI is the sole authority for printing and distributing currency notes in India. The cost of printing and distributing notes is an expense, and the seigniorage (profit from issuing currency) is a source of revenue for the government, with the RBI incurring the operational costs. While it's a core function, the printing itself isn't a direct "source of income" in the profit-making sense for the RBI.

  

Question 3: With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information

	Organization	Some of its functions	It works under
I	Directorate of Enforcement	Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018	Ministry of Home Affairs
II	Directorate of Revenue Intelligence	Enforces the Provisions of the Customs Act, 1962	Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance
III	Directorate General of Systems and Data Management	Carrying out big data analytics to assist tax officers for better policy and nabbing tax evaders	Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance

 In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?

(a) Only one                   

(b) Only two                   

(c) All the three                           

(d) None

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation:

I. Directorate of Enforcement (ED):

• Functions: The ED is indeed responsible for enforcing the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018, as well as the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), and the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA).
• Ministry: The ED functions under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of Home Affairs. This statement is incorrect.

II. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI):

• Functions: The DRI is the apex anti-smuggling intelligence and investigation agency in India. It primarily enforces the provisions of the Customs Act, 1962, to prevent smuggling and commercial frauds.
• Ministry: The DRI works under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance. This statement is correct.

III. Directorate General of Systems and Data Management:

• Functions: This Directorate General is responsible for big data analytics, system development, and data management to support tax officers in policy formulation and identifying tax evasion.
• Ministry: It functions under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance (specifically, under the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) or Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) for specific data applications, but overall, it's under the Ministry of Finance). This statement is correct.

Therefore, rows II and III are correctly matched.

 

Question 4: Consider the following statements:

I. The Reserve Bank of India mandates all the listed companies in India to submit a Business Responsibility and Sustainability Reporting (BRSR).

II. In India, a company submitting a BRSR makes disclosures on the report that are largely non-financial in nature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only                            

(b) II only                          

(c) Both I and II                            

(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (b) II only

Explanation:

I. The Reserve Bank of India mandates all the listed companies in India to submit a Business Responsibility and Sustainability Reporting (BRSR). This statement is incorrect.

• The BRSR framework is mandated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), not the RBI. SEBI initially mandated BRSR for the top 1000 listed companies (by market capitalization) from the financial year 2022-23 onwards. It's a phased implementation, not for all listed companies immediately, and it's by SEBI.

II. In India, a company submitting a BRSR makes disclosures on the report that are largely non-financial in nature. This statement is correct.

• The BRSR is designed to capture non-financial disclosures related to environmental, social, and governance (ESG) aspects of a company's performance. It covers areas like energy consumption, water usage, waste management, employee welfare, human rights, customer satisfaction, and responsible business conduct, which are primarily non-financial.

Question 5: Consider the following statements:

Statement I: In India, income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas is exempted from income tax.

Statement II: In India, rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I

(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct

(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer: (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Explanation:

Statement I: In India, income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas is exempted from income tax. This statement is incorrect.

• Under the Income-tax Act, 1961, "agricultural income" as defined in Section 2(1A) is exempt from tax. However, allied activities like poultry farming, dairy farming, wool rearing, etc., are generally not considered agricultural income as per the strict definition. Income from these activities is taxable. Only income derived directly from land used for agricultural purposes (e.g., cultivation) is exempt.

Statement II: In India, rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961. This statement is correct.

• Section 2(14) of the Income-tax Act defines "capital asset." It specifically excludes "agricultural land in a rural area." Rural area is defined by specific population criteria and distance from a municipality/cantonment board. Therefore, the sale of rural agricultural land does not attract capital gains tax.

Since Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.

 

Question 6: Consider the following statements:

I. India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership as a member.

II. India is a resource-rich country in at least 30 critical minerals that it has identified.

III. The 'Amendment in 2023' has amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, empowering the Central Government to exclusively auction mining lease and composite license for certain critical minerals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I and II only                             

(b) II and III only          

(c) I and III only            

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (c) I and III only

Explanation:

I. India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership as a member. This statement is correct.

• India officially joined the US-led Minerals Security Partnership (MSP) in July 2023. The MSP is a global initiative aimed at securing critical mineral supply chains.

II. India is a resource-rich country in at least 30 critical minerals that it has identified. This statement is incorrect.

• While India has identified a list of critical minerals (which was initially 30 and later expanded to 30 + 10 in some contexts), India is not resource-rich in all or most of these critical minerals. India is significantly dependent on imports for many critical minerals like lithium, cobalt, nickel, rare earth elements, etc.

III. The 'Amendment in 2023' has amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, empowering the Central Government to exclusively auction mining lease and composite license for certain critical minerals. This statement is correct.

• The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2023, was indeed enacted. One of its key provisions is to empower the Central Government to exclusively auction mining leases and composite licenses for 24 critical minerals (including lithium, beryllium, niobium, titanium, zirconium, etc.), thereby streamlining the process and encouraging private sector participation.

Therefore, statements I and III are correct.

 

Question 7: Consider the following statements:

Statement I: As regards returns from an investment in a company, general bondholders are considered to be relatively at lower risk than stockholders.

Statement II: Bondholders are lenders to a company whereas stockholders are its owners.

Statement III: For repayment purposes, bondholders are prioritised over stockholders by a company.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement I explains Statement II

(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

Explanation:

Statement I: This is correct.

• Bondholders receive fixed interest payments, and their principal is repaid at maturity, making their returns more predictable. Stockholders, on the other hand, have variable returns (dividends and capital gains) that depend on the company's performance, and they are the last to be paid in case of liquidation, making them higher risk.

Statement II: This is correct.

• This is a fundamental distinction. Bondholders provide debt financing and are creditors, while stockholders provide equity financing and own a share of the company.

Statement III: This is correct.

• In the event of a company's bankruptcy or liquidation, bondholders (creditors) have a legal claim to the company's assets before stockholders. Stockholders are residual claimants, meaning they only get paid if there's anything left after all creditors (including bondholders) are satisfied.

Now, let's look at the relationship between these statements:

Statements II and III explain why Statement I is true. Because bondholders are lenders (Statement II) and are prioritized in repayment (Statement III), their investment is less risky compared to stockholders, who are owners and last in line for repayment.

Therefore, both Statement II and Statement III are correct, and both explain Statement I.

 

Question 8: Consider the following statements:

Statement I: India accounts for a very large portion of all equity option contracts traded globally thus exhibiting a great boom.

Statement II: India's stock market has grown rapidly in the recent past even overtaking Hong Kong's at some point of time.

Statement III: There is no regulatory body either to warn the small investors about the risks of options trading or to act on unregistered financial advisors in this regard.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only                             

(b) II and III only                          

(c) I and III only            

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (a) I and II only

Explanation:

Statement I : This is correct.

•  India, particularly the National Stock Exchange (NSE), has indeed become a global leader in the trading of equity derivatives, especially Nifty options. Data from various sources (like the World Federation of Exchanges) consistently shows India as having extremely high volumes in equity options trading, often surpassing other major markets.

Statement II:  This is correct.

• The Indian stock market has seen significant growth in recent years. There have been instances where the market capitalization of the Indian stock market has surpassed that of Hong Kong's, indicating its rapid expansion and increasing prominence.

Statement III: This is incorrect.

• India has a robust regulatory framework for its financial markets. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is the primary regulatory body.

SEBI is actively involved in: 

• Warning investors about risks: SEBI frequently issues advisories and warnings about the risks associated with speculative instruments like options trading, especially for retail investors.
• Acting on unregistered financial advisors: SEBI has strict regulations for financial advisors and investment schemes. Operating as an unregistered financial advisor is illegal, and SEBI takes action against such entities to protect investors.

Therefore, Statements I and II are correct, while Statement III is incorrect.

 

Question 9: Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Circular economy reduces the emissions of greenhouse gases.

Statement II: Circular economy reduces the use of raw materials as inputs.

Statement III: Circular economy reduces wastage in the production process.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

Explanation:

A circular economy is an economic system aimed at eliminating waste and the continual use of resources. It involves sharing, leasing, reusing, repairing, refurbishing, and recycling existing materials and products for as long as possible.

Statement I: This is correct.

• By reducing the need for new raw materials, minimizing waste, and promoting reuse and recycling, a circular economy lessens the energy required for production and processing, thereby leading to lower greenhouse gas emissions.

Statement II:  This is correct.

• The core principle of a circular economy is to keep resources in use for as long as possible, extracting the maximum value from them while in use, then recovering and regenerating products and materials at the end of service life. This directly leads to a reduced demand for virgin raw materials.

Statement III: This is correct.

• Waste reduction is a fundamental goal of a circular economy. It aims to design out waste from the outset, promoting efficiency and the recovery of materials that would otherwise be discarded.

Now, let's look at the relationship between these statements.

Statements II and III describe how a circular economy works and the immediate benefits. These benefits (reduced raw material use and reduced wastage) directly contribute to and explain the broader benefit of reduced greenhouse gas emissions (Statement I).

Therefore, both Statement II and Statement III are correct, and both explain Statement I.

 

Question 10: Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government.

Statement II: Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts.

Statement III: Interest received on loans creates a liability of the Government.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only                             

(b) I and III only            

(c) I and III only            

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (a) I and II only

Explanation:

Statement I: This is correct.

• Capital receipts are government receipts that either create a liability (like borrowings, which the government has to repay) or reduce assets (like disinvestment, where the government sells its stake in public sector undertakings).

Statement II: This is correct.

• Borrowings: When the government borrows, it incurs a liability, making it a capital receipt.
• Disinvestment: When the government disinvests (sells its shares in public sector companies), it reduces its assets, making it a capital receipt.

Statement III: This is incorrect.

• Interest received by the government on loans it has given (e.g., to states or public sector units) is a revenue receipt, not a capital receipt. Furthermore, it represents income for the government and does not create a liability for the government. Instead, it is a liability for the entity that borrowed from the government.

Based on this analysis, Statements I and II are correct. Statement III is incorrect.

 

Question 11: Consider the following statements about Raja Ram Mohan Roy:

I. He possessed great love and respect for the traditional philosophical systems of the East.

II. He desired his countrymen to accept the rational and scientific approach and the principle of human dignity and social equality of all men and women.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only I                           

(b) Only II                         

(c) Both I and II                            

(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (c) Both I and II

Explanation:

Raja Ram Mohan Roy was a pivotal figure in Indian reform.

Statement I: Raja Ram Mohan Roy was indeed deeply learned in traditional Indian philosophical systems, including the Vedas and Upanishads. He drew upon these texts to argue for his reforms, demonstrating his respect for the philosophical heritage while reinterpreting them. So, Statement I is correct.

Statement II: Roy was a strong advocate for rationalism, scientific thought, human dignity, and social equality. He campaigned against practices like Sati, child marriage, and the caste system, and promoted Western education and scientific inquiry. So, Statement II is also correct.

Therefore, both statements are correct.

 

Question 12: Consider the following subjects with regard to Non-Cooperation Programme:

I. Boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth.

II. Observance of strict non-violence.

III. Retention of titles and honours without using them in public.

IV. Establishment of Panchayats for settling disputes.

How many of the above were parts of Non-Cooperation Programme?

(a) Only one                   

(b) Only two                   

(c) All the three                           

(d) None

Answer: (c) Only three

Explanation:

The Non-Cooperation Movement (1920-1922) launched by Mahatma Gandhi had several key components:

I. Boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth: This was a significant part of the program. People were encouraged to boycott British courts and goods, including foreign cloth, and use indigenous (Swadeshi) products. So, this was part of the program.

II. Observance of strict non-violence: Non-violence (Ahimsa) was the foundational principle of the Non-Cooperation Movement, as it was for all of Gandhi's major movements. So, this was part of the program.

III. Retention of titles and honours without using them in public: The Non-Cooperation program specifically called for the surrender of titles and honorary offices awarded by the British. Retaining them, even without using them, would contradict the spirit of non-cooperation. So, this was NOT part of the program; rather, the opposite was.

IV. Establishment of Panchayats for settling disputes: As part of the boycott of British courts, alternative dispute resolution mechanisms like village panchayats were encouraged. So, this was part of the program.

Therefore, statements I, II, and IV were parts of the Non-Cooperation Programme.

 

Question 13: The irrigation device called 'Araghatta' was

(a) a water bag made of leather pulled over a pulley

(b) a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes

(c) a larger earthen pot driven by bullocks

(d) a large water bucket pulled up by rope directly by hand

Answer: (b) a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes

Explanation:

The 'Araghatta' is an ancient Indian irrigation device.

(b) a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes accurately describes the 'Araghatta', which is essentially a Persian wheel or a water wheel with pots attached to its rim that scoop up water from a well or river and then empty it into a channel as the wheel rotates. It was often operated by animals.

• Options (a), (c), and (d) describe other simpler or less efficient methods of water lifting, but not the specific 'Araghatta'.

 

Question 14: Who among the following rulers in ancient India had assumed the titles 'Mattavilasa', 'Vichitrachitta' and 'Gunabhara'?

(a) Mahendravarman I           

(b) Simhavishnu         

(c) Narasimhavarman I         

(d) Simhavarman

Answer: (a) Mahendravarman I

Explanation:

These titles are associated with Mahendravarman I, a famous Pallava ruler of the 7th century CE.

• Mattavilasa Prahasana: A famous Sanskrit play written by Mahendravarman I, hence the title 'Mattavilasa'.
• Vichitrachitta (curious-minded or unique-minded): Refers to his varied interests and accomplishments in art, architecture, and literature.
• Gunabhara (burdened with virtues or repository of good qualities): Another laudatory title indicating his multifaceted talents and virtues.
• The other options were also Pallava rulers, but these specific titles are attributed to Mahendravarman I.

 Question 15: Fa-hien (Faxian), the Chinese pilgrim, travelled to India during the reign of

(a) Samudragupta                     

(b) Chandragupta II

(c) Kumaragupta I                     

(d) Skandagupta

Answer: (b) Chandragupta II

Explanation:

Faxian was a Chinese Buddhist monk who traveled to India during the early 5th century CE. His primary purpose was to collect Buddhist scriptures. He visited various places associated with the Buddha's life.

• Historically, Faxian's visit to India (c. 399-412 CE) broadly coincided with the reign of Chandragupta II (also known as Vikramaditya) of the Gupta Empire (c. 375-415 CE).
• His travelogue, "A Record of Buddhist Kingdoms," provides valuable insights into the social and religious conditions of India during the Gupta period.

 

Question 16: Who among the following led a successful military campaign against the kingdom of Srivijaya, the powerful maritime State, which ruled the Malay Peninsula, Sumatra, Java and the neighbouring islands?

(a) Amoghavarsha (Rashtrakuta)                  

(b) Prataprarudra (Kakatiya)

(c) Rajendra I (Chola)                                                              

(d) Vishnuvardhana (Hoysala)

Answer: (c) Rajendra I (Chola)

Explanation:

Rajendra I, the Chola king, led a famous naval expedition against the Srivijaya Empire in Southeast Asia in the 11th century. This campaign was successful and helped the Chola dynasty establish its maritime supremacy.

Question 17: With reference to ancient India (600-322 BC), consider the following pairs:

Territorial region	River flowing in the region
I. Asmaka	Godavari
II. Kamboja	Vipas
III. Avanti	Mahanadi
IV. Kosala	Sarayu

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one                   

(b) Only two                   

(c) All the three                           

(d) None

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation:

I. Asmaka : Godavari: Asmaka (or Assaka) was one of the sixteen Mahajanapadas, located on the banks of the Godavari river. (Correctly matched)

II. Kamboja : Vipas: Kamboja was a Mahajanapada located in the northwestern part of the Indian subcontinent (modern-day Afghanistan and Pakistan). The Vipas (Beas) river is in Punjab. Kamboja was not primarily associated with the Vipas river in this period. (Incorrectly matched)

III. Avanti : Mahanadi: Avanti was a Mahajanapada with Ujjain as its capital, located in central India. The Mahanadi river flows through eastern India. Avanti was not associated with the Mahanadi. (Incorrectly matched)

IV. Kosala : Sarayu: Kosala was a prominent Mahajanapada with its capital at Ayodhya, situated on the banks of the Sarayu river. (Correctly matched)

Therefore, only two pairs (I and IV) are correctly matched.

 

Question 18: The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, a music training school, was set up in 1901 by Vishnu Digambar Paluskar in

(a) Delhi                            

(b) Gwalior                      

(c) Ujjain                           

(d) Lahore

Answer: (d) Lahore

Explanation:

Pandit Vishnu Digambar Paluskar established the first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya in Lahore (then part of British India) in 1901, with the aim of imparting systematic training in Hindustani classical music.

 

Question 19: Ashokan inscriptions suggest that the 'Pradeshika', 'Rajuka' and 'Yukta' were important officers at the

(a) village-level administration                       

(b) district-level administration

(c) provincial administration                                            

(d) level of the central administration

Answer: (b) district-level administration

Explanation:

In the Mauryan administration, particularly under Ashoka,

• The 'Pradeshikas' were officers in charge of revenue collection and law and order in a large administrative unit (likely a district or larger).
• 'Rajukas' were responsible for justice and land surveys at the district level.
• 'Yuktas' were subordinate officers, likely clerical or accounting staff.

These roles indicate their functions were primarily at the district-level administration.

 

Question 20: Consider the following statements in respect of the Non-Cooperation Movement:

I. The Congress declared the attainment of 'Swaraj' by all legitimate and peaceful means to be its objective.

II. It was to be implemented in stages with civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes for the next stage only if 'Swaraj' did not come within a year and the Government resorted to repression.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only                            

(b) II only                          

(c) Both I and II                            

(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (c) Both I and II

Explanation:

Let's analyze each statement regarding the Non-Cooperation Movement (1920-1922):

I. The Congress declared the attainment of 'Swaraj' by all legitimate and peaceful means to be its objective. This is true. The Nagpur session (1920) of the Indian National Congress formally adopted the Non-Cooperation programme and altered its creed to "the attainment of Swaraj by all legitimate and peaceful means." (Correct)

II. It was to be implemented in stages with civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes for the next stage only if 'Swaraj' did not come within a year and the Government resorted to repression. This statement is also largely correct.

• Gandhi had indeed promised Swaraj within a year if the movement was faithfully implemented.
• The programme was initially non-violent, focusing on boycotts and resignations. The stages were designed such that if the initial non-cooperation did not yield results, more intensive measures like civil disobedience (including non-payment of taxes) would be adopted, especially if the government responded with repression. (Correct)

Since both statements are correct, the appropriate option is (c).

 

Question 21: Consider the following countries:

I. Austria          II. Bulgaria      III. Croatia      IV. Serbia         V. Sweden       VI. North Macedonia

How many of the above are members of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization?

(a) Only three                               

(b) Only four                   

(c) Only five                    

(d) All the six

Answer: (b) Only four

Explanation:

The North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) is a military alliance established in 1949. To determine which of these countries are members, we need to recall the current NATO membership.

• Austria: Not a NATO member. It is a neutral country.
• Bulgaria: Is a NATO member (joined 2004).
• Croatia: Is a NATO member (joined 2009).
• Serbia: Not a NATO member. It is militarily neutral.
• Sweden: Is a NATO member (joined 2024).
• North Macedonia: Is a NATO member (joined 2020).

Counting the NATO members from the list: Bulgaria, Croatia, Sweden, and North Macedonia.

Therefore, four countries are members of NATO.

 

Question 22: Consider the following countries:

I. Bolivia           II. Brazil            III. Colombia IV. Ecuador    V. Paraguay   VI. Venezuela

Andes mountains pass through how many of the above countries?

(a) Only two                   

(b) Only three                               

(c) Only four                   

(d) Only five

Answer: (c) Only four

Explanation:

The Andes is the longest continental mountain range in the world, stretching along the western coast of South America. Let's check which of the listed South American countries the Andes mountains pass through:

• Bolivia: Yes, the Andes pass through Bolivia.
• Brazil: No, the Andes do not pass through Brazil. Brazil's highest point is Pico da Neblina, which is part of the Guiana Highlands, not the Andes.
• Colombia: Yes, the Andes pass through Colombia.
• Ecuador: Yes, the Andes pass through Ecuador.
• Paraguay: No, the Andes do not pass through Paraguay. The country is largely flat.
• Venezuela: Yes, the Andes pass through western Venezuela (specifically the Cordillera de Mérida).

Counting the countries: Bolivia, Colombia, Ecuador, and Venezuela.

Therefore, the Andes mountains pass through four of the above countries.

Question 23: Consider the following water bodies:

I. Lake Tanganyika    II. Lake Tonlé Sap      III. Patoa Lagoon

Through how many of them does the equator pass?

(a) Only one                   

(b) Only two                   

(c) All the three                           

(d) None

Answer: (d) None

Explanation:

We need to determine which of these water bodies are intersected by the Earth's equator.

• Lake Tanganyika: This is one of the African Great Lakes. It is located in East Africa, and its northern part lies just south of the equator. The equator does not directly pass through Lake Tanganyika.
• Lake Tonlé Sap: This is a lake in Cambodia, Southeast Asia. Cambodia is entirely north of the equator. Therefore, the equator does not pass through Lake Tonlé Sap.
• Patoa Lagoon: This is a lake in Brazil, South America. It is located in Southern Hemisphere near Atlantic coast. Therefore, the equator does not pass through Lake Tonlé Sap.

 

Question 24: Consider the following statements about turmeric during the year 2022-23:

I. India is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric in the world.

II. More than 30 varieties of turmeric are grown in India.

III. Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are major turmeric producing States in India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II Only            

(b) II and III Only         

(c) I and III Only           

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (d) I, II and III

Explanation:

Let's analyze each statement regarding turmeric in India for 2022-23.

Statement I: In89dia is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric in the world. This statement is correct.

• India has historically been and continues to be the largest producer and exporter of turmeric, accounting for a significant share of global production and trade.

Statement II: More than 30 varieties of turmeric are grown in India.This statement is also correct.

• India is a biodiversity hotspot for turmeric, with numerous varieties and landraces cultivated across different regions, exceeding 30.

Statement III: Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are major turmeric producing States in India. This statement is also correct.

• These states, along with others like Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, and Kerala, are indeed major turmeric-producing regions in India. Telangana, specifically, is a very significant producer.

 

Question 25: Which of the following are the evidences of the phenomenon of continental drift?

I. The belt of ancient rocks from Brazil coast matches with those from Western Africa.

II. The gold deposits of Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side.

III. The Gondwana system of sediments from India is known to have its counterparts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) I and III only            

(b) I and II only                             

(c) I, II and III                 

(d) II and III only

Answer: (c) I , II and III

Explanation:

Continental drift is a theory proposed by Alfred Wegener in 1912, suggesting that Earth's continents have moved over geological time. He presented several pieces of evidence to support his theory.

I. The belt of ancient rocks from Brazil coast matches with those from Western Africa. This is a correct piece of evidence.

• Wegener noted the remarkable similarity in age and type of rocks found in coastal regions of South America (Brazil) and West Africa, suggesting they were once connected. This is known as geological evidence.

II. The gold deposits of Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side. This statement is also correct.

• Wegener pointed out that rich placer deposits of gold in Ghana (West Africa) have no source rock in Africa itself but are found in Brazil, implying that the gold-bearing veins were in Brazil when the continents were joined, and the gold was subsequently eroded and deposited in Ghana. This is another form of geological/mineral evidence.

III. The Gondwana system of sediments from India is known to have its counterparts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere. This is also a correct piece of evidence.

• The distribution of characteristic glacial deposits (tillites) and coal-bearing sedimentary sequences (Gondwana System) found in India, Africa, South America, Australia, and Antarctica provides strong evidence that these landmasses were once part of a supercontinent called Gondwana. This is paleontological/paleoclimatic evidence.

All three statements are classical pieces of evidence supporting the theory of continental drift.

 

Question 26: Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere is more in subtropical and temperate areas than in equatorial and polar regions.

Statement II: Subtropical and temperate areas have less dry winds.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I

(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct

(d) Statement II is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer: (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct

Explanation:

Let's analyze each statement:

Statement I: The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere is more in subtropical and temperate areas than in equatorial and polar regions. This statement is generally correct.

• Equatorial regions: Experience heavy rainfall and dense vegetation, which tend to clear dust from the atmosphere.
• Polar regions: Have limited sources of dust (ice/snow cover) and generally clean air.
• Subtropical and temperate regions: These regions often have significant landmasses, deserts (e.g., Sahara, Arabian Desert, Thar Desert in subtropical belts), agricultural areas, and industrial activities, which are major sources of dust. Wind patterns (like trade winds and westerlies) can also transport dust over long distances in these zones.

Statement II: Subtropical and temperate areas have less dry winds. This statement is incorrect.

• Subtropical regions: Are characterized by high-pressure belts, which lead to descending air, clear skies, and dry winds. Many of the world's major deserts are found in these latitudes precisely due to these dry conditions (e.g., trade winds).
• Temperate regions: Experience a mix of air masses, but dry winds (e.g., hot dry winds like Foehn, Chinook) can be prevalent in certain seasons or areas, especially in continental interiors. Overall, compared to the moist equatorial regions, they can have significant periods of dry winds. The presence of deserts and arid regions in the subtropics directly contradicts the idea of "less dry winds." In fact, dry winds are a key feature.

 

Question 27: Consider the following statements:

Statement I: In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms bend southward while crossing the landmasses, and poleward while crossing the oceans.

Statement II: In January, the air over the oceans is warmer than that over the landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I

(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct

(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

Explanation:

Statement I: This statement is correct. In winter (January) in the Northern Hemisphere, land cools down faster and to a greater extent than oceans. Therefore, isotherms (lines of equal temperature) bend southward over land (indicating colder temperatures) and poleward over oceans (indicating relatively warmer temperatures).

Statement II: This statement is also correct. Due to the higher specific heat capacity of water, oceans retain heat longer and cool down more slowly than land during winter. Hence, the air over oceans is generally warmer than over landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere in January.

• Relationship: Statement II explains Statement I. The differential heating and cooling rates of land and water, leading to warmer oceans and colder land in winter, directly cause the observed bending pattern of isotherms as described in Statement I.

 

Question 28: Consider the following statements:

Statement I: In the context of effect of water on rocks, chalk is known as a very permeable rock whereas clay is known as quite an impermeable or least permeable rock.

Statement II: Chalk is porous and hence can absorb water.

Statement III: Clay is not at all porous.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

(c) Only one of the statements II and III are correct and that explains Statement I

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: (c) Only one of the statements II and III are correct and that explains Statement I

Explanation:

Statement I: This statement is correct.

• Chalk, being a soft, porous limestone, is highly permeable, allowing water to pass through easily. Clay, on the other hand, consists of very fine particles that pack tightly, making it largely impermeable to water.

Statement II: This statement is correct.

• Chalk is indeed porous, meaning it has many tiny pores. These pores allow it to absorb water.

Statement III: This statement is incorrect.

• Clay is porous, meaning it has small spaces between its particles. However, the pores in clay are very small and often interconnected in a tortuous way, and the particles themselves swell when wet, which makes it impermeable to water, even though it is porous. Impermeability in clay is due to the small size of pores and the attraction of water molecules to clay particles, not a lack of porosity.

 

Question 29: Consider the following statements:

I. Without the atmosphere, temperature would be well below freezing point everywhere on the Earth's surface.

II. Heat absorbed and trapped by the atmosphere maintains our planet's average temperature.

III. Atmosphere's gases, like carbon dioxide, are particularly good at absorbing and trapping radiation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and III only            

(b) I and II only                             

(c) I, II and III                 

(d) II and III only

Answer: (c) I, II and III

Explanation:

Statement I: This statement is correct.

• Without an atmosphere, Earth would experience extreme temperature fluctuations between day and night, and the average temperature would be much colder, well below freezing, similar to the moon. The atmosphere provides insulation.

Statement II: This statement is correct.

• The atmosphere, through the greenhouse effect, absorbs and traps outgoing longwave radiation from the Earth's surface, which is crucial for maintaining the planet's average temperature at a habitable level.

Statement III: This statement is correct.

• Greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide (CO_2), methane (CH_4), water vapor (H_2O), etc., are very effective at absorbing and re-emitting infrared (longwave) radiation, thus trapping heat in the atmosphere.

 

Question 30: Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Gokul Mission:

I. It is important for the upliftment of rural poor as majority of low productive indigenous animals are with small and marginal farmers and landless labourers.

II. It was initiated to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific and holistic manner.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only            

(b) II only          

(c) Both I and II            

(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (c) Both I and II

Explanation:

Statement I: This statement is correct.

• The Rashtriya Gokul Mission, by aiming to improve the productivity of indigenous bovine breeds, directly benefits small and marginal farmers and landless laborers who often own low-productive animals. Increased productivity (milk, draught power) translates to better income and livelihood.

Statement II: This statement is correct.

• The core objective of the Rashtriya Gokul Mission is indeed the development and conservation of indigenous bovine breeds in a scientific and holistic manner, to enhance their productivity and genetic potential.

 

Question 31: Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Studies indicate that carbon dioxide emissions from cement industry account for more than 5% of global carbon emissions.

Statement II: Silica-bearing clay is mixed with limestone while manufacturing cement.

Statement III: Limestone is converted into lime during clinker production for cement manufacturing.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

Explanation:

Statement I:  Cement production is a significant source of CO2 emissions. The major source of CO2 emissions in cement production is the calcination of limestone (CaCO3) to lime (CaO), which releases CO2.

• According to various reports and studies (e.g., IPCC, International Energy Agency), the cement industry is indeed a major contributor to global CO2 emissions, often cited as contributing around 7-8% of global anthropogenic CO2 emissions. So, "more than 5%" is generally correct.

Statement II: Cement manufacturing primarily involves heating limestone (calcium carbonate) and clay (which contains silica, alumina, and iron oxides) in a kiln. So, "Silica-bearing clay is mixed with limestone while manufacturing cement" is a correct statement about the raw materials used.

Statement III: During the clinker production stage, limestone (calcium carbonate) is indeed heated at high temperatures (around 1450°C), causing it to decompose into lime (calcium oxide) and carbon dioxide. This process is called calcination. So, "Limestone is converted into lime during clinker production for cement manufacturing" is a correct statement.

Relationship between Statements:

• Statement II and Statement III describe the process and raw materials of cement manufacturing. Specifically, Statement III (conversion of limestone to lime) directly explains the primary source of CO2 emissions mentioned in Statement I.
• Statement II describes the mixture of raw materials, which is part of the overall process leading to the emissions. Therefore, both Statement II and Statement III are correct descriptions of the cement manufacturing process, and Statement III, in particular, directly explains the origin of the CO2 emissions mentioned in Statement I.

 

Question 32: Consider the following statements:

Statement I: At the 28th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP28), India refrained from signing the ‘Declaration on Climate and Health’.

Statement II: The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a binding declaration; and if signed, it becomes manda- tory to decarbonize health sector.

Statement III: If India’s health sector is decarbonized, the resilience of its health-care system may be compromised.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Explanation:

Statement I:  At COP28, India did not sign the ‘Declaration on Climate and Health’. This statement is correct.

• India, along with China and the US, abstained from signing this declaration, citing various reasons including concerns about the implications for developing countries and healthcare infrastructure.

Statement II:  "The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a binding declaration..." This part is incorrect.

• Declarations made at COPs are generally non-binding agreements and expressions of political will, not legally binding treaties or mandates.
• "...and if signed, it becomes mandatory to decarbonize health sector." Since it's not a binding declaration, it doesn't become mandatory. This part is also incorrect.

Statement III: Decarbonizing the health sector generally involves transitioning to renewable energy, improving energy efficiency, and reducing waste,  which are often seen as ways to improve resilience and sustainability, not compromise it in the long term. While there might be initial costs and logistical challenges, the long-term goal is to make the system more robust and less susceptible to the impacts of climate change and fluctuating fossil fuel prices. Therefore, this statement is generally incorrect.

 

Question 33: Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Scientific studies suggest that a shift is taking place in the Earth’s rotation and axis.

Statement II: Solar flares and associated coronal mass ejections bombarded the Earth’s outermost atmosphere with tremendous amount of energy.

Statement III: As the Earth’s polar ice melts, the water tends to move towards the equator.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: (b) Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

Explanation:

Statement I: This statement is correct.

• Earth's rotation and the position of its rotational poles (axis) are constantly changing due to various factors, including the redistribution of mass on and within the Earth. This phenomenon is known as polar motion and changes in the length of day.

Statement II: This statement is correct.

• Solar flares and CMEs are powerful events on the Sun that release massive amounts of energy and charged particles, which interact with Earth's magnetosphere and upper atmosphere, leading to phenomena like auroras and geomagnetic storms. However, they are not primarily responsible for changes in Earth's rotation or axis.

Statement III: This statement is correct.

• When ice sheets and glaciers at the poles melt, the meltwater flows into the oceans and redistributes mass from high latitudes towards lower latitudes (equator). This redistribution of mass affects Earth's moment of inertia and, consequently, its rotation and the position of its axis. This is a significant factor in observed polar motion.

Relationship between Statements:

  We need to determine which statements (II and/or III) explain Statement I (shift in Earth's rotation and axis).

• Statement II (Solar flares and CMEs): While these are significant astronomical events, they primarily affect Earth's magnetosphere and atmosphere, not its solid body rotation or axis in a long-term, direct, and significant way related to the "shift" being discussed in the context of polar motion.
• Statement III (Polar ice melt and water moving towards the equator): This directly relates to the redistribution of mass on Earth, which is a well-established cause of changes in Earth's rotation and the position of its axis (polar motion). The "shift" in Earth's rotation and axis is significantly influenced by this mass redistribution.

 

Question 34: Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change is frequently discussed in global discussions on sustainable development and climate change.

Statement II: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change sets out the principles of carbon markets.

Statement III: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change intends to promote inter-country non-market strategies to reach their climate targets.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

Explanation:

Article 6 of the Paris Agreement is indeed crucial for carbon markets and international cooperation.

Statement I: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change is frequently discussed in global discussions on sustainable development and climate change. This statement is correct.

• Article 6 is a key component of the Paris Agreement, focusing on international cooperation to achieve emission reduction targets, including through market and non-market mechanisms.

Statement II: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change sets out the principles of carbon markets. This statement is correct.

• Article 6.2 deals with "internationally transferred mitigation outcomes" (ITMOs), which essentially allows for carbon trading between countries. Article 6.4 establishes a mechanism for global carbon markets, and Article 6.8 addresses non-market approaches.

Statement III: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change intends to promote inter-country non-market strategies to reach their climate targets. This statement is also correct.

• Article 6.8 specifically addresses "non-market approaches to sustainable development," which can include various forms of international cooperation like finance, technology transfer, and capacity building, distinct from carbon trading.

Now, let's see how they relate to Statement I:

Statement I is a general observation about the prominence of Article 6. Both Statement II (carbon markets) and Statement III (non-market strategies) are specific aspects that contribute to the frequent discussion of Article 6 in the context of sustainable development and climate change. Therefore, both Statement II and Statement III provide valid reasons why Statement I is true.

 

Question 35: Which one of the following launched the 'Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific?

(a) The Asian Development Bank (ADB)

(b) The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)

(c) The New Development Bank (NDB)

(d) The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)

Answer: (a) The Asian Development Bank (ADB)

Explanation:

This question asks about a specific initiative.

The Asian Development Bank (ADB) has been actively involved in promoting nature-based solutions and sustainable finance in Asia and the Pacific. They launched the "Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific."

• AIIB primarily focuses on infrastructure development.
• NDB (BRICS Bank) focuses on infrastructure and sustainable development projects in BRICS countries.
• IBRD is part of the World Bank Group and lends to middle-income and creditworthy low-income countries.

 

Question 36: With reference to 'Direct Air Capture', an emerging technology, which of the following statements is/are correct?

I. It can be used as a way of carbon sequestration.

II. It can be a valuable approach for plastic production and in food processing.

III. In aviation, it can be a source of carbon for combining with hydrogen to create synthetic low-carbon fuel.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) I and II only                             

(b) III only        

(c) I, II and III 

(d) None of the above statements is correct

Answer: (c) I, II and III

Explanation:

Direct Air Capture (DAC) is a technology designed to remove carbon dioxide directly from the atmosphere. Let's analyze each statement:

I. It can be used as a way of carbon sequestration. This statement is correct.

• Once CO2 is captured from the air, it can be stored underground (geological sequestration) or used in various products, effectively removing it from the atmosphere.

II. It can be a valuable approach for plastic production and in food processing. This statement is also correct.

• The captured CO2 can be utilized as a feedstock for various industrial processes. For instance, it can be used in the production of plastics (e.g., polycarbonates, polyurethanes) and other chemicals, or in enhanced oil recovery (EOR) in some cases. In food processing, CO2 is used in carbonated beverages and other applications. This is often referred to as Carbon Capture Utilization (CCU).

III. In aviation, it can be a source of carbon for combining with hydrogen to create synthetic low-carbon fuel. This statement is correct.

• This process is known as "Power-to-Liquids" or "e-fuels." Captured CO2 can be combined with green hydrogen (produced via electrolysis using renewable energy) to synthesize liquid fuels like jet fuel.
• These synthetic fuels are considered "low-carbon" because the carbon they emit during combustion was initially captured from the atmosphere, creating a closed carbon loop (or nearly so, depending on the energy source for capture and hydrogen production).

 

Question 37: Regarding Peacock tarantula (Gooty tarantula), consider the following statements:

I. It is an omnivorous crustacean.

II. Its natural habitat in India is only limited to some forest areas.

III. In its natural habitat, it is an arboreal species.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only            

(b) I and III       

(c) II only          

(d) II and III

Answer: (d) II and III

Explanation:

Let's examine each statement about the Peacock Tarantula (scientifically Poecilotheria metallica or Gooty Sapphire Ornamental Tree Spider):

I. It is an omnivorous crustacean. This statement is incorrect.

• The Peacock Tarantula is an arachnid (specifically a spider), not a crustacean. Crustaceans include crabs, lobsters, and shrimp. Tarantulas are also primarily carnivorous, feeding on insects and small vertebrates, not omnivorous.

II. Its natural habitat in India is only limited to some forest areas. This statement is correct.

• The Gooty tarantula is critically endangered and endemic to a very specific, small deciduous forest area in Andhra Pradesh, India, primarily in the Eastern Ghats. So, "only limited to some forest areas" is accurate.

III. In its natural habitat, it is an arboreal species. This statement is correct.

• "Arboreal" means tree-dwelling. The Gooty tarantula is known to live in holes of tall trees, demonstrating its arboreal nature.

 

Question 38: Statements:

I. Carbon dioxide (CO_2) emissions in India are less than 0.5 t CO_2/capita.

II. In terms of CO_2 emissions from fuel combustion, India ranks second in Asia-Pacific region.

III. Electricity and heat producers are the largest sources of CO_2 emissions in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I and III only            

(b) II Only         

(c) II and III only          

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (c) II and III only

Explanation:

Statement I: According to the World Bank data for 2021, India's CO2 emissions were 1.9 tCO2 per capita. Therefore, this statement is incorrect.

Statement II: While India is a significant emitter, in terms of CO2 emissions from fuel combustion, China consistently ranks first in the Asia-Pacific region by a very large margin. India is generally second or third globally, and within Asia-Pacific, it's typically second after China. This statement is correct.

Statement III: This statement is generally correct. Globally and in India, the energy sector, particularly electricity and heat generation (often from fossil fuels), is the largest contributor to CO2 emissions.

 

Question 39: Consider the following Pairs:

Plant	Description
I. Cassava :	Woody shrub
II. Ginger :	Herb with pseudostem
III. Malabar spinach :	Herbaceous climber
IV. Mint :	Annual shrub
V. Papaya :	Woody shrub

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only two   

(b) Only three                               

(c) Only four                   

(d) All the five

Answer: (b) Only three

Explanation:

I. Cassava : Woody shrub: Cassava (Manihot esculenta) is indeed a woody shrub. Correct.

II. Ginger : Herb with pseudostem: Ginger (Zingiber officinale) is a herbaceous plant with a pseudostem (formed by the tightly wrapped leaf sheaths). Correct.

III. Malabar spinach : Herbaceous climber: Malabar spinach (Basella alba) is a leafy vegetable that is a herbaceous vine or climber. Correct.

IV. Mint : Annual shrub: Mint (Mentha species) is typically a herbaceous perennial, not an annual shrub. It can spread widely but doesn't form a woody shrub structure. Incorrect.

V. Papaya : Woody shrub: Papaya (Carica papaya) is a large herbaceous plant, often referred to as a "tree-like herb," but it does not have the true woody structure of a shrub or tree. Its stem is succulent and hollow. Incorrect.

 

Question 40: With reference to the planet Earth, consider the following statements:

I. Rain forests produce more oxygen than that produced by oceans.

II. Marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria produce about 50% of world's oxygen.

III. Well-oxygenated surface water contains several folds higher oxygen than that in atmospheric air.

(a) I and II         

(b) II only          

(c) I and III       

(d) None of the above statements is correct

Answer: (b) II only

Explanation:

I. Rain forests produce more oxygen than that produced by oceans. This statement is incorrect.

• The oceans, primarily through phytoplankton, are estimated to produce 50-80% of the Earth's oxygen. While rainforests are significant, their contribution is less than that of the oceans.

II. Marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria produce about 50% of world's oxygen. This statement is generally correct.

• Various scientific estimates place the oceanic contribution to atmospheric oxygen, largely from phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria, in the range of 50-80%, so "about 50%" is a reasonable lower-end estimate.

III. Well-oxygenated surface water contains several folds higher oxygen than that in atmospheric air. This statement is incorrect.

• The solubility of oxygen in water is much lower than its concentration in atmospheric air. While well-oxygenated water is vital for aquatic life, the concentration of dissolved oxygen in water (even saturated) is significantly less than the concentration of oxygen in the air. For example, at typical temperatures, saturated freshwater might contain around 8-10 mg/L of oxygen, whereas air has a much higher concentration.

 

Question 41: Consider the following types of vehicles:

I. Full battery electric vehicles

II. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles

III. Fuel cell-electric hybrid vehicles

How many of the above are considered as alternative powertrain vehicles?

(a) Only one                   

(b) Only two                   

(c) All the three                           

(d) None

Answer: (c) All the three

Explanation:

Alternative powertrain vehicles are those that use a different source of power than traditional internal combustion engines (gasoline or diesel).

I. Full battery electric vehicles: These vehicles run solely on electricity stored in a battery, making them a prime example of alternative powertrain.

II. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles: These vehicles generate electricity from hydrogen and oxygen in a fuel cell to power an electric motor. They are a clean alternative to gasoline cars.

III. Fuel cell-electric hybrid vehicles: These vehicles combine a fuel cell system with a battery and an electric motor, often allowing for both fuel cell and battery power. This is also an alternative powertrain.

All three options represent alternative powertrain technologies.

 

Question 42: With reference to Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), consider the following statements:

I. All types of UAVs can do vertical landing.

II. All types of UAVs can do automated hovering.

III. All types of UAVs can use battery only as a source of power supply.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one                   

(b) Only two                   

(c) All the three                           

(d) None

Answer: (d) None

Explanation:

Let's analyze each statement regarding UAVs (drones):

I. All types of UAVs can do vertical landing: This statement is incorrect. While many quadcopters and multi-rotor drones can perform vertical landing, fixed-wing UAVs (which resemble airplanes) typically require a runway or a launch/recovery system (like a net or parachute) for landing, not vertical landing.

II. All types of UAVs can do automated hovering: This statement is incorrect. Hovering is the ability to stay stationary in the air. This capability is common in multi-rotor drones. However, fixed-wing UAVs are designed for forward flight and generally cannot hover.

III. All types of UAVs can use battery only as a source of power supply: This statement is incorrect. While batteries are a very common power source for many smaller and medium-sized UAVs, larger or longer-endurance UAVs can be powered by gasoline engines, hybrid systems (battery + fuel), or even solar power.

Since all three statements are incorrect.

 

Question 43: In the context of electric vehicle batteries, consider the following elements:

I. Cobalt                           II. Graphite                     III. Lithium                      IV. Nickel

How many of the above usually make up battery cathodes?

(a) Only one                   

(b) Only two                   

(c) All the three                           

(d) None

Answer: (c) Only three (Cobalt, Lithium, Nickel)

Explanation:

Let's look at the components typically found in electric vehicle battery cathodes (specifically, lithium-ion batteries, which are dominant):

I. Cobalt: Cobalt is a key component in many lithium-ion battery cathodes, particularly in chemistries like Lithium Cobalt Oxide (LCO) and Nickel Manganese Cobalt (NMC). It helps in stabilizing the structure and improving performance.

II. Graphite: Graphite is primarily used as the anode material in lithium-ion batteries, not the cathode. It serves as the host structure for lithium ions during charging.

III. Lithium: Lithium is the fundamental active material that moves between the anode and cathode during charging and discharging. It is present in the cathode material (e.g., Lithium Cobalt Oxide, Lithium Iron Phosphate, Lithium Nickel Manganese Cobalt Oxide).

IV. Nickel: Nickel is another crucial element used in many advanced lithium-ion battery cathodes, especially in Nickel Manganese Cobalt (NMC) and Nickel Cobalt Aluminum (NCA) chemistries. It helps to increase energy density.

Therefore, Cobalt, Lithium, and Nickel are commonly found in battery cathodes. Graphite is for anodes.

 

Question 44: Consider the following:

I. Cigarette butts                       II. Eyeglass lenses                    III. Car tyres

How many of them contain plastic?

(a) Only one                   

(b) Only two                   

(c) All the three                           

(d) None

Answer: (c) All the three

Explanation:

Let's examine each item for plastic content:

I. Cigarette butts: The filter of a cigarette butt is primarily made of cellulose acetate, which is a type of bioplastic. So, yes, they contain plastic.

II. Eyeglass lenses: Most modern eyeglass lenses are made from various types of plastic, such as CR-39 (allyl diglycol carbonate), polycarbonate, or high-index plastics. Glass lenses are still available but plastic is more common due to its lightness and shatter resistance.

III. Car tyres: Car tires are primarily made of synthetic rubber (which is a polymer derived from petroleum, essentially a type of plastic) and natural rubber, along with other reinforcing materials like carbon black and steel cords. So, yes, they contain plastic polymers.

Therefore, all three items contain plastic in some form.

 

Question 45: Consider the following substances:

I. Ethanol                         II. Nitroglycerine                       III. Urea

Coal gasification technology can be used in the production of how many of them?

(a) Only one                   

(b) Only two                   

(c) All the three                           

(d) None

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation:

Coal gasification is a process that converts coal into syngas (synthesis gas), which is primarily a mixture of carbon monoxide (CO) and hydrogen (H₂). Syngas is a versatile chemical feedstock that can be used to produce various chemicals.

I. Ethanol: Ethanol can be produced from syngas through various processes, including the Fischer-Tropsch process or direct synthesis from CO and H₂. Therefore, coal gasification can be used in its production.

II. Nitroglycerine: Nitroglycerine is produced by the nitration of glycerol. Glycerol can be produced from petroleum or biomass, but not directly or typically from syngas produced by coal gasification in a commercially viable way for this purpose.

III. Urea: Urea is produced from ammonia (NH₃) and carbon dioxide (CO₂). Ammonia is synthesized using hydrogen (H₂) and nitrogen (N₂). The hydrogen required for ammonia synthesis can be derived from syngas produced by coal gasification (through the water-gas shift reaction to produce more H₂).

ü  The CO₂ can also be captured from the gasification process or from other sources. Therefore, coal gasification can be used to produce the precursors for urea.

Thus, Ethanol and Urea can be produced using coal gasification technology.

 

Question 46: What is the common characteristic of the chemical substances generally known as CL-20, HMX and LLM-105, which are sometimes talked about in media?

(a) These are alternatives to hydro-fluorocarbon refrigerants

(b) These are explosives in military weapons

(c) These are high-energy fuels for cruise missiles

(d) These are fuels for rocket propulsion

Answer: (b) These are explosives in military weapons

Explanation:

Let's identify the common characteristic of CL-20, HMX, and LLM-105:

• CL-20 (Hexanitrohexaazaisowurtzitane): This is one of the most powerful non-nuclear explosives ever synthesized. It is a nitramine explosive.
• HMX (High Melting eXplosive or High-Molecular-weight RDX): This is a powerful and very stable nitramine explosive, widely used in military applications.
• LLM-105 (2,6-Diamino-3,5-dinitropyrazine-1-oxide): This is a relatively new high-energy material that is being researched for its potential as a high-performance explosive, particularly in insensitive munitions.

Given their chemical structures and properties, all three are well-known high-energy materials, specifically explosives.

(a) These are alternatives to hydro-fluorocarbon refrigerants: Incorrect. Refrigerants are chemicals used in cooling systems.

(b) These are explosives in military weapons: Correct. All three are powerful explosives used in military applications.

(c) These are high-energy fuels for cruise missiles: Incorrect. While they are high-energy, they are not typically used as fuels but as explosive warhead materials.

(d) These are fuels for rocket propulsion: Incorrect. Rocket fuels are propellants, and while they can be energetic, these specific compounds are primarily used for their explosive properties, not as propellants.

 

Question 47: Consider the following statements:

I. It is expected that Majorana 1 chip will enable quantum computing.

II. Majorana 1 chip has been introduced by Amazon Web Services (AWS).

III. Deep learning is a subset of machine learning.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only                             

(b) II and III only          

(c) I and III only            

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (c) I and III only

Explanation:

Statement I: It is expected that Majorana 1 chip will enable quantum computing. This statement is generally plausible.

• Majorana fermions are theoretical particles that are their own antiparticles and are considered potential building blocks for fault-tolerant quantum computers (topological quantum computing). While a "Majorana 1 chip" specifically isn't a widely recognized commercial product, the concept of using Majorana fermions for quantum computing is a significant area of research.

Statement II: Majorana 1 chip has been introduced by Amazon Web Services (AWS). This statement is incorrect.

• AWS is a cloud computing platform, and while they offer quantum computing services through AWS Braket, there is no widely known or announced "Majorana 1 chip" developed or introduced by AWS. Majorana research is primarily in academic and specialized research institutions.

Statement III: Deep learning is a subset of machine learning. This statement is correct.

• Machine learning is a broad field, and deep learning is a specific subfield that uses neural networks with many layers (hence "deep") to learn from data.

Given this analysis, only Statement III is definitively correct. Statement I is conceptually sound but the "Majorana 1 chip" as a specific product is not widely known, and Statement II is incorrect.

 

Question 48: With reference to monoclonal antibodies, often mentioned in news, consider the following statements:

I. They are man-made proteins.

II. They stimulate immunological function due to their ability to bind to specific Antigens.

III. They are used in treating viral infections like that of Nipah virus.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only                             

(b) II and III only          

(c) I and III only            

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (d) I, II and III

Explanation:

Statement I: They are man-made proteins. This is correct.

• Monoclonal antibodies are produced in laboratories, often using hybridoma technology or recombinant DNA technology, to target specific antigens. While they mimic natural antibodies, they are not naturally occurring in the human body in the way they are used therapeutically; they are engineered.

Statement II: They stimulate immunological function due to their ability to bind to specific Antigens. This is correct.

• The primary mechanism of action for monoclonal antibodies is their highly specific binding to target antigens (e.g., on pathogens or cancer cells). This binding can directly neutralize the pathogen/cell, block its function, or mark it for destruction by other components of the immune system (e.g., antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity, complement activation). They stimulate (or modulate) immunological function by directing the immune response.

Statement III: They are used in treating viral infections like that of Nipah virus. This is correct.

• Monoclonal antibodies have been explored and used as a therapeutic strategy for various viral infections, including emerging and highly pathogenic ones like Nipah virus. For Nipah virus, a human monoclonal antibody (m102.4) has been investigated for post-exposure prophylaxis and treatment.

All three statements are correct.

 

Question 49: Consider the following statements:

I. No virus can survive in ocean waters.

II. No virus can infect bacteria.

III. No virus can change the cellular transcriptional activity in host cells.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one                   

(b) Only two                   

(c) All the three                           

(d) None

Answer: (d) None

Explanation:

Statement I: No virus can survive in ocean waters. This statement is incorrect.

• Oceans are teeming with viruses, primarily bacteriophages (viruses that infect bacteria) and viruses that infect marine eukaryotes (like algae). These viruses play crucial roles in marine ecosystems, influencing nutrient cycling and population dynamics.

Statement II: No virus can infect bacteria. This statement is incorrect.

• Viruses that specifically infect bacteria are called bacteriophages (or phages). They are abundant and play a significant role in bacterial population control and evolution.

Statement III: No virus can change the cellular transcriptional activity in host cells. This statement is incorrect.

ü  A fundamental aspect of viral infection is the hijacking of the host cell machinery. Viruses often reprogram the host cell to prioritize viral gene expression, which involves changing the host cell's transcriptional (and translational) activity to produce viral proteins and replicate viral genomes. Many viruses have specific mechanisms to alter host cell transcription, either by directly interacting with host transcription factors or by encoding their own.

All three statements are incorrect.

 

Question 50: Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Activated carbon is a good and an attractive tool to remove pollutants from effluent streams and to remediate contaminants from various industries.

Statement II: Activated carbon exhibits a large surface area and a strong potential for adsorbing heavy metals.

Statement III: Activated carbon can be easily synthesized from environmental wastes with high carbon content.

Which one of the following is correct in respect to the above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

Explanation:

Statement I: Activated carbon is a good and an attractive tool to remove pollutants from effluent streams and to remediate contaminants from various industries. This statement is correct.

• Activated carbon is widely used in various industrial and environmental applications for its adsorbent properties, effectively removing a wide range of organic and inorganic pollutants.

Statement II: Activated carbon exhibits a large surface area and a strong potential for adsorbing heavy metals. This statement is correct.

• The high porosity and large surface area of activated carbon are key to its excellent adsorption capabilities. It is indeed effective in adsorbing various substances, including heavy metals (though its effectiveness can vary depending on the metal and surface modification). This characteristic directly explains why it's a good tool (Statement I).

Statement III: Activated carbon can be easily synthesized from environmental wastes with high carbon content. This statement is correct.

• Activated carbon can indeed be produced from a variety of carbon-rich precursors, including agricultural waste (e.g., coconut shells, rice husks), wood waste, and other biomass, making it a sustainable and cost-effective material. This contributes to its "attractive tool" aspect (Statement I) because its production can be environmentally friendly and economical.

 

Question 51: With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:

I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act.

II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right.

III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only                             

(b) II and III only          

(c) I and III only            

(d) I, II and III

Answer:  (d) I, II and III.

Explanation:

Statement I: An Ordinance can amend any Central Act. Ordinances are laws promulgated by the President (under Article 123) or the Governor (under Article 213) when Parliament/State Legislature is not in session.

• They have the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament/State Legislature. Therefore, an Ordinance can amend or repeal any Central Act. This statement is correct.

Statement II: An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right. The Supreme Court has consistently held that an Ordinance, being a law, is subject to the same constitutional limitations as an Act of Parliament.

• Fundamental Rights are part of the basic structure of the Constitution. Any law, including an Ordinance, that abridges or takes away Fundamental Rights is subject to judicial review and can be declared unconstitutional if it violates Part III of the Constitution.

ü  However, it's important to note that while an Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right, it will be subject to the test of constitutionality.

• For example, during a state of emergency, certain fundamental rights can be suspended. But if an ordinance is passed that "abridges" a fundamental right unconstitutionally, it will be struck down. The wording "can abridge" implies the power to do so, not necessarily the validity in all cases. Given the context of a general polity question, the intent is likely whether such a power exists, even if it's open to challenge. The Supreme Court has indeed examined ordinances for their consistency with fundamental rights.   This statement is generally considered correct in the sense that the power exists, but its validity is subject to judicial review.

Statement III: An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date. Yes, ordinances, like regular legislation, can have retrospective effect (come into effect from a past date). This is a well-established principle in law-making.  This statement is correct.

All three statements are correct.

 

Question 52: Consider the following pairs:

State	Description
I. Arunachal Pradesh	The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks
II. Nagaland	The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act
III. Tripura	Initially a Part 'C' State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one                   

(b) Only two                   

(c) All the three                           

(d) None

Answer:  (b) Only two.

Explanation:

Pair I: The capital of Arunachal Pradesh is Itanagar. "Itanagar" is derived from the Ita-fort (Fort of bricks).   Arunachal Pradesh has two National Parks: Mouling National Park and Namdapha National Park.   This pair is correctly matched.

Pair II: Nagaland was formed in 1963. It was created by the State of Nagaland Act, 1962, which was a regular parliamentary law, not a constitutional amendment. Article 3 of the Constitution allows for the formation of new states by ordinary law.   This pair is incorrectly matched.

Pair III: Prior to the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, Tripura was indeed a Part C State.  After the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, Tripura became a Union Territory (centrally administered territory). Finally, in 1972, Tripura attained full statehood through the North-Eastern Areas (Reorganisation) Act, 1971.  This pair is correctly matched.

 

Question 53: With reference to India, consider the following :

I. The Inter-State Council

II. The National Security Council

III. Zonal Councils

How many of the above established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?

(a) Only one                   

(b) Only two                   

(c) All the three                           

(d) None

Answer:  (a) Only One.

Explanation:

I. The Inter-State Council: Established under Article 263 of the Constitution of India. It is a constitutional body.

II. The National Security Council: An executive body, established by a Cabinet resolution in 1998. It is an extra-constitutional body.

III. Zonal Councils: Established under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. They are statutory bodies.

 

Question 54: Consider the following statements:

I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion.

II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a Bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only            

(b) II only          

(c) Both I and II            

(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (a) I only

Explanation:

Statement I: The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion.

• Article 163(1) of the Constitution states: "There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Chief Minister at the head to aid and advice the Governor in the exercise of his functions, except in so far as he is by or under this Constitution required to exercise his functions or any of them in his discretion."
• Furthermore, Article 163(2) explicitly states: "If any question arises whether any matter is or is not a matter as respects which the Governor is by or under this Constitution required to act in his discretion, the decision of the Governor in his discretion shall be final, and the validity of anything done by the Governor shall not be called in question on the ground that he ought or ought not to have acted in his discretion."

 Examples of discretionary powers include: appointing a Chief Minister when no party has a clear majority, dismissing a ministry that has lost confidence but refuses to resign, reserving a Bill for the President's consideration (Article 200), etc.  This statement is correct.

Statement II: The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a Bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.

• Article 200 of the Constitution clearly states that when a Bill passed by the State Legislature is presented to the Governor, the Governor "may reserve the Bill for the consideration of the President." The Governor's discretion is exercised before the Bill goes to the President. The President does not suo motu reserve a State Bill for consideration. It is always the Governor who reserves it and forwards it to the President under Article 201. This statement is incorrect.

 

Question 55: Consider the following pairs:

Provision in the Constitution of India	Stated under
I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State	The Directive Principles of the State Policy
II. Valuing and preserving of the rich heritage of our composite culture	The Fundamental Duties
III. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories	The Fundamental Rights

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one                   

(b) Only two                   

(c) All the three                           

(d) None

Answer: (c) All the three.

Explanation:

• Pair I: Article 50 of the Indian Constitution, which is part of the Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV), states: "The State shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State."  This pair is correctly matched.
• Pair II: Article 51A(f) of the Fundamental Duties (Part IVA) states: "to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture." This pair is correctly matched.
• Pair III:   Article 24 of the Indian Constitution, which is a Fundamental Right (Part III), states: "No child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment."  This pair is correctly matched.

 

Question 56: Consider the following statements:

With reference to the Constitution of India, an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule.

I. The State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration.

II. The Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only            

(b) II only          

(c) Both I and II            

(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (d) Neither I nor II

Explanation:

Statement I is incorrect. The Fifth Schedule deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in any State other than the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.

• While the State Government's executive power is certainly impacted and a Tribal Advisory Council is formed, a "local body" does not assume "total administration" in the way implied. The State Government still has significant executive power, though subject to special provisions. The Governor has a crucial role.

Statement II is incorrect. While the Union Government does have a role, the statement that it "can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor" is not entirely accurate in how the Fifth Schedule operates.

• The Union Government's power is more supervisory and advisory, and it can give directions to the state government. The Governor's recommendations are important, but it's not a complete "takeover" in the same way as an emergency provision, and the Governor's role is to report to the President on the administration of these areas.

 

Question 57:  With reference to India, consider the following pairs:

Organization	Union Ministry
I. The National Automotive Board	Ministry of Commerce and Industry
II. The Coir Board	Ministry of Heavy Industries
III. The National Centre for Trade Information	Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one                   

(b) Only two                   

(c) All the three                           

(d) None

Answer: (d) None

Explanation:

I. The National Automotive Board (NAB): This Board functions under the Ministry of Heavy Industries. It was indeed previously associated with the Ministry of Commerce and Industry but was later brought under the Ministry of Heavy Industries. So, this pair is incorrect.

II. The Coir Board: The Coir Board is a statutory body established under the Coir Industry Act, 1953. It functions under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME). So, this pair is incorrect.

III. The National Centre for Trade Information (NCTI): NCTI is a joint venture of India Trade Promotion Organisation (ITPO) and National Informatics Centre (NIC). ITPO functions under the Ministry of Commerce & Industry. Therefore, NCTI is associated with the Ministry of Commerce & Industry, not MSME. So, this pair is incorrect.

 

Question 58: Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India:

I. List I—Union List, in the Seventh Schedule

II. Extent of the executive power of a State

III. Conditions of the Governor’s office

For a Constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President for assent?

(a) I and II only                             

(b) II and III only          

(c) I and III only            

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (d) I, II and III

Explanation:

Article 368 of the Constitution of India outlines the procedure for amendment. Some amendments require, in addition to a special majority of Parliament, the ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States. These are typically provisions that affect the federal structure of the Constitution.

Let's examine each subject:

I. List I —Union List, in the Seventh Schedule: Any amendment to the distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the States (which is covered by the lists in the Seventh Schedule) requires ratification by half of the states. This is a fundamental aspect of federalism. (Requires State Ratification)

II. Extent of the executive power of a State: The executive power of the Union and the States is clearly defined. Changes to the extent of the executive power of a State would impact the federal distribution of powers and thus require state ratification. (Requires State Ratification)

III. Conditions of the Governor’s office: The Governor is a constitutional head of the state, and their office is a key part of the state's executive and the federal structure. While the Governor is appointed by the President, changes to the conditions of their office could impact the federal balance and require state ratification. However, the appointment and removal process are more directly tied to the President.

• Amendments concerning the conditions of the Governor's office (e.g., salary, allowances) are usually made by Parliament through ordinary legislation or can be changed by a special majority in Parliament.
• However, if it affects the federal principle related to the state executive, then state ratification might be required. But typically, the "Conditions of the Governor's office" generally relates to their emoluments, which Parliament can decide. But the office itself is part of the federal structure.
• The question is about the conditions of the office.

 

Question 59: With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:

I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office.

II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office.

III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only                             

(b) II and III only          

(c) I and III only            

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (d) I, II and III

Explanation:

These statements relate to the immunities enjoyed by constitutional functionaries.

Statement I is correct. Article 361(1) of the Constitution states that "The President, or the Governor of a State, shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office or for any act done or purporting to be done by him in the exercise and performance of those powers and duties."

Statement II is correct. Article 361(2) states that "No criminal proceedings whatsoever shall be instituted or continued against the President, or the Governor of a State, in any court during his term of office."

Statement III is correct. Article 194(2) states that "No member of the Legislature of a State shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by him in the Legislature or any committee thereof, and no person shall be so liable in respect of the publication by or under the authority of a House of such a Legislature of any report, paper, votes or proceedings."

 

Question 60: Consider the following activities:

I. Production of crude oil

II. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum

III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products

IV. Production of natural gas

How many of the above activities are regulated by the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board in our country?

(a) Only one                   

(b) Only two                   

(c) All the three                           

(d) None

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation:

The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) was established under the PNGRB Act, 2006. Its primary functions include:

• Protecting the interests of consumers and entities engaged in specified activities relating to petroleum, petroleum products, and natural gas.
• Promoting competitive markets.
• Ensuring the availability of petroleum, petroleum products, and natural gas.
• Regulating the refining, processing, storage, transportation, distribution, marketing, and sale of petroleum products and natural gas (excluding production of crude oil and natural gas).

Let's analyze the activities:

I. Production of crude oil: This activity is generally not regulated by the PNGRB. Production (exploration and upstream activities) is primarily regulated by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas directly through policies, licensing rounds (like NELP/HELP), and specific Directorate General of Hydrocarbons (DGH).

II. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum: These activities are regulated by the PNGRB.

III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products: These activities are regulated by the PNGRB.

IV. Production of natural gas: Similar to crude oil production, natural gas production (upstream activities) is generally not regulated by the PNGRB.

Therefore, only two activities (Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum, and Marketing and sale of petroleum products) are regulated by the PNGRB.

 

Question 61: The suppose the revenue expenditure is ₹80,000 crores and the revenue receipts of the Government are ₹60,000 crores. The Government budget also shows borrowings of ₹10,000 crores and interest payments of ₹6,000 crores. Which of the following statements are correct?

I. Revenue deficit is ₹20,000 crores.

II. Fiscal deficit is ₹10,000 crores.

III. Primary deficit is ₹4,000 crores.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) I and II only                             

(b) II and III only          

(c) I and III only            

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (d) I, II and III

Explanation:

To solve this, we need to understand the definitions of Revenue Deficit, Fiscal Deficit, and Primary Deficit.

• Revenue Deficit = Revenue Expenditure - Revenue Receipts
• Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure - Total Receipts (excluding borrowings) OR
• Fiscal Deficit = Borrowings and Other Liabilities
• Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit - Interest Payments

Let's calculate each based on the given information:

Revenue Expenditure = ₹80,000 crores

Revenue Receipts = ₹60,000 crores

Borrowings = ₹10,000 crores (This represents the Fiscal Deficit)

Interest Payments = ₹6,000 crores

I. Revenue Deficit:

Revenue Deficit = Revenue Expenditure - Revenue Receipts

Revenue Deficit = ₹80,000 crores - ₹60,000 crores = ₹20,000 crores.

So, statement I is Correct.

II. Fiscal Deficit:

The problem states that the budget shows "borrowings of ₹10,000 crores". In government budgeting, borrowings are a key indicator of fiscal deficit.

Fiscal Deficit = ₹10,000 crores.

So, statement II is Correct.

III. Primary Deficit:

Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit - Interest Payments

Primary Deficit = ₹10,000 crores - ₹6,000 crores = ₹4,000 crores.

So, statement III is Correct.

 

Question 62: India is one of the founding members of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), a multimodal transportation corridor, which will connect

(a) India to Central Asia via Europe via Iran

(b) India to Central Asia via China

(c) India to South-East Asia through Bangladesh and Myanmar

(d) India to Europe through Azerbaijan

Answer: Option is (a) or (d).

Explanation:

The International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) is a 7,200-km-long multi-modal network of ship, rail, and road route for moving freight between India, Iran, Azerbaijan, Russia, Central Asia, and Europe.

• It primarily aims to connect India with Europe and Central Asia, significantly reducing transit time and costs compared to traditional routes.

Looking at the options:

(a) India to Central Asia via Europe via Iran: This is partially correct but not the full picture. The INSTC's primary goal is to connect India to Europe and Russia, often passing through Iran and then further north to Central Asia and Europe.

(b) India to Central Asia via China: This is incorrect. INSTC does not involve China.

(c) India to South-East Asia through Bangladesh and Myanmar: This describes a different set of connectivity initiatives (e.g., BIMSTEC, Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project), not INSTC.

(d) India to Europe through Azerbaijan: This is a key route of the INSTC. Goods from India can reach Iran (Chabahar or Bandar Abbas), then move by rail/road through Azerbaijan and further to Russia and Europe. This option accurately captures a significant aspect of the INSTC's connectivity.

Therefore, the most accurate answer among the given choices is (d).

 

Question 63: Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Of the two major ethanol producers in the world, i.e., Brazil and the United States of America, the former produces more ethanol than the latter.

Statement II: Unlike in the United States of America where corn is the principal feedstock for ethanol production, sugarcane is the principal feedstock for ethanol production in Brazil.

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I

(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct

(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer:  (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Explanation:

Statement I: Of the two major ethanol producers in the world, i.e., Brazil and the United States of America, the former produces more ethanol than the latter.

• Historically, the United States has been the world's largest producer of ethanol, primarily from corn. Brazil is the second largest, primarily using sugarcane. While production volumes can fluctuate slightly year to year, the US has consistently held the top position.
• Therefore, the statement that Brazil produces more ethanol than the United States is Incorrect.

Statement II: Unlike in the United States of America where corn is the principal feedstock for ethanol production, sugarcane is the principal feedstock for ethanol production in Brazil.

• This statement is factually correct. In the United States, corn is overwhelmingly the primary feedstock for ethanol production. In Brazil, sugarcane is the dominant feedstock due to its abundance and efficient conversion to ethanol.
• Therefore, this statement is Correct.

 

Question 64: The World Bank warned that India could become one of the first places where wet-bulb temperatures routinely exceed 35°C. Which of the following statements best reflect(s) the implication of the above-said report?

I. Peninsular India will most likely suffer from flooding, tropical cyclones and droughts.

II. The survival of animals including humans will be affected as shedding of their body heat through perspiration becomes difficult.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) I only            

(b) II only          

(c) Both I and II            

(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (b) II only

Explanation:

Wet-bulb temperature is the lowest temperature to which air can be cooled by the evaporation of water into the air at a constant pressure. When the wet-bulb temperature reaches 35°C, it means that the air is so hot and humid that sweat will no longer evaporate from the human body, making it impossible for humans (and many animals) to cool themselves down. This can lead to hyperthermia, organ failure, and death, even for healthy individuals resting in the shade.

Now let's evaluate the given statements in the context of routinely exceeding 35°C wet-bulb temperatures:

I. Peninsular India will most likely suffer from flooding, tropical cyclones and droughts:

• While climate change can indeed lead to an increase in extreme weather events like floods, cyclones, and droughts, a direct and specific implication of routinely exceeding 35°C wet-bulb temperatures is not primarily about these events.
• Wet-bulb temperature focuses on the physiological impact of heat and humidity. Flooding, cyclones, and droughts are related to rainfall patterns and atmospheric pressure systems, although influenced by global warming. This statement doesn't directly reflect the specific danger of high wet-bulb temperatures.

II. The survival of animals including humans will be affected as shedding of their body heat through perspiration becomes difficult.

• This statement directly addresses the physiological impact of high wet-bulb temperatures. As explained above, when the wet-bulb temperature is too high, the body's primary cooling mechanism (evaporation of sweat) becomes ineffective.
• This inability to shed body heat can lead to heatstroke, organ damage, and eventually death in humans and many animals. This is precisely the critical implication of routinely exceeding 35°C wet-bulb temperatures.

Therefore, statement II best reflects the implication of the report.

 

Question 65: A country's fiscal deficit stands at ₹50,000 crores. It is receiving ₹10,000 crores through non-debt creating capital receipts. The country's interest liabilities are ₹1,500 crores. What is the gross primary deficit?

(a) ₹48,500 crores    

(b) ₹51,500 crores    

(c) ₹58,500 crores    

(d) None of the above

Answer: (a) ₹48,500 crores

Explanation:

Fiscal Deficit = ₹50,000 crores

Non-debt creating capital receipts = ₹10,000 crores

(This information is extra and not directly needed for calculating primary deficit if fiscal deficit is already given).

Interest Liabilities (Interest Payments) = ₹1,500 crores

The formula for Primary Deficit is:

Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit - Interest Payments

Primary Deficit = ₹50,000 crores - ₹1,500 crores

Primary Deficit = ₹48,500 crores

 

Question 66: Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct?

I. It has recommended grants of ₹4,800 crores from the year 2022-23 to the year 2025-26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes.

II. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States.

III. ₹45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms.

IV. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) I, II and III                 

(b) I, II and IV                 

(c) I, III and IV                               

(d) II, III and IV

Answer: (c) I, III and IV

Explanation:

Statement I: The 15th Finance Commission indeed recommended sector-specific grants. For School Education, it recommended ₹4,800 crore as grants from 2021-26 (which includes the period 2022-23 to 2025-26) to incentivize states for enhancing educational outcomes. This statement is correct.

Statement II: The 15th Finance Commission recommended that the share of states in the central taxes (vertical devolution) for the 2021-26 period be set at 41% of the divisible pool of central taxes. The 14th Finance Commission had recommended 42%. Therefore, 45% is incorrect. This statement is incorrect.

Statement III: The 15th Finance Commission recommended a total of ₹45,000 crores as sector-specific grants for the implementation of agricultural reforms. These grants are indeed performance-based incentives. This statement is correct.

Statement IV: The 15th Finance Commission did introduce 'Tax Effort' as a criterion for horizontal devolution (distribution among states). It assigned a weightage of 2.5% to this criterion to reward states for better fiscal performance and increased revenue mobilization. This statement is correct.

 

Question 67: Consider the following statements in respect of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD):

I. It provides loans and guarantees to middle income countries.

II. It works single-handedly to help developing countries to reduce poverty.

III. It was established to help Europe rebuild after the World War II.

Which of the statements given above are correct?.

(a) I and II only                             

(b) II and III only          

(c) I and III only            

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (d) I and III

Explanation:

Statement I: The IBRD is an international financial institution that provides financial products and policy advice to help middle-income and creditworthy low-income countries. It offers loans, guarantees, and risk management tools. This statement is correct.

Statement II: The IBRD is one of the five institutions that form the World Bank Group. While it plays a significant role in reducing poverty and promoting sustainable development, it does not work "single-handedly."

• It works in collaboration with other World Bank Group institutions (like IDA, IFC, MIGA, ICSID) and various international organizations, governments, and NGOs. This statement is incorrect.

Statement III: The IBRD was established in 1944 at the Bretton Woods Conference. Its primary original purpose was to finance the reconstruction of nations devastated by World War II, particularly in Europe. This statement is correct.

 

Question 68: Consider the following statements in respect of RTGS and NEFT:

I. In RTGS, the customer is charged for inward transactions while that is not the case for NEFT.

II. Operating hours for RTGS are restricted on certain days while this is not true for NEFT.

 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)   I Only                          

(b) I and II         

(c)  I and III              

(d) III Only

Answer: No option

Explanation:

Statement I: For both RTGS (Real-Time Gross Settlement) and NEFT (National Electronic Funds Transfer), the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has mandated that no charges should be levied on inward transactions (receiving money) for customers. Banks are allowed to charge for outward transactions (sending money). Therefore, this statement is incorrect.

Statement II: As per RBI guidelines, both RTGS and NEFT are available 24x7, 365 days a year, including weekends and public holidays since December 2019 for NEFTDecember 2020 for RTGS. Therefore, the statement that RTGS operating hours are restricted on certain days while this is not true for NEFT is incorrect.

 

Question 69: Consider the following Countries:

I. United Arab Emirates         

II. France         

III. Germany  

IV. Singapore                                

V. Bangladesh

How many countries amongst the above are there other than India where international merchant payments are accepted under UPI?

(a)   Only two                   

(b) Only three                               

(c) Only four                   

(d) All the five

Answer: (b) Only three

Explanation:

Let's analyze each country from the list to see if international merchant payments are accepted under UPI:

I. United Arab Emirates (UAE): Yes, UAE widely accepts UPI payments. Agreements have been signed to interlink UPI with their national payment platforms.

II. France: Yes, France became one of the first European nations to accept UPI, starting with places like the Eiffel Tower and expanding to other retailers and tourism businesses.

III. Germany: While there are discussions and plans for UPI expansion in Europe (including the Benelux markets and Switzerland), Germany is not yet widely listed as a country where UPI international merchant payments are accepted.

IV. Singapore: Yes, Singapore was an early adopter of UPI and has a cross-border linkage with its PayNow system, allowing for seamless transactions.

V. Bangladesh: There's no readily available information indicating that Bangladesh currently accepts international merchant payments via UPI.

Based on this, the countries among the given options that accept international merchant payments under UPI are UAE, France, and Singapore.

 

Question 70: Consider the following statements about 'PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana':

I. It targets installation of one crore solar rooftop panels in the residential sector.

II. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy aims to impart training on installation, operation, maintenance and repairs of solar rooftop systems at grassroot levels.

III. It aims to create more than three lakhs skilled manpower through skilling, up-skilling, and under scheme component of capacity building.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) I and II only                             

(b) II and III only          

(c) I and III only            

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (d) I, II and III

Explanation:

Statement I: The 'PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana' was launched with the explicit target of enabling one crore households to get up to 300 units of free electricity every month by installing rooftop solar panels. This statement is correct.

Statement II: The scheme aims to boost rooftop solar adoption. A key component of this is building capacity and providing training. While the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) is the nodal ministry for renewable energy, the scheme's objectives do include imparting training for installation, operation, maintenance, and repair at the grassroots level to support the widespread adoption of rooftop solar. This statement is correct.

Statement III: The scheme emphasizes creating employment opportunities. It aims to create a significant number of skilled workers (such as electricians, solar technicians) for manufacturing, installation, and maintenance of solar panels. The target of creating more than three lakh skilled manpower through skilling and up-skilling is indeed part of the scheme's objectives for capacity building. This statement is correct.

 

Question 71: "Sedition has become my religion" was the famous statement given by Gandhiji at the time of

(a) The Champaran Satyagraha

(b) Publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi

(c) Attending the Second Round Table Conference in London

(d) The launch of the Quit India Movement

Answer: (b) publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi.

Explanation:

Mahatma Gandhi's statement "Sedition has become my religion" was made in the context of the Civil Disobedience Movement, specifically during and after the Salt March to Dandi in 1930.

• By manufacturing salt in defiance of the British salt laws, he was directly challenging British authority, an act that was considered seditious.
• This statement reflected his commitment to non-violent resistance against unjust laws, even if it meant being labeled a seditionist.

 

Question 72: The famous female figurine known as 'Dancing Girl', found at Mohenjo-daro, is made of

(a) carnelian                  

(b) clay                              

(c) bronze                        

(d) gold

Answer: (c) bronze.

Explanation:

The 'Dancing Girl' is one of the most iconic artifacts from the Indus Valley Civilization, discovered at Mohenjo-daro.

• It is a small, approximately 10.5 cm (4.1 in) high, bronze statue, believed to be around 4,500 years old.
• Its creation demonstrates the advanced metallurgical skills of the Harappan people.

 

Question 73: Who provided legal defence to the people arrested in the aftermath of Chauri Chaura incident?

(a) C. R. Das

(b) Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant

(c) Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew and Khwaja Hasan Nizami

(d) M. A. Jinnah

Answer:  (b) Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant.

Explanation:

Following the Chauri Chaura incident in 1922, where a violent mob set fire to a police station, many people were arrested and faced charges.

• Madan Mohan Malaviya, a prominent lawyer and politician, played a significant role in providing legal defense to the accused. While Krishna Kant's involvement in this specific defense is less widely emphasized than Malaviya's, Malaviya's name is strongly associated with the legal efforts to save the accused in the Chauri Chaura case.
• Other options were not primarily involved in this specific legal defense.

 

Question 74: Subsequent to which one of the following events, Gandhiji, who consistently opposed untouchability and appealed for its eradication in all spheres, decided to include the upliftment of 'Harijans' in his political and social programme?

(a) The Poona Pact

(b) The Gandhi-Irwin Agreement (Delhi Pact)

(c) Arrest of Congress leadership at the time of the Quit India Movement

(d) Promulgation of the Government of India Act, 1935

Answer: (a) The Poona Pact.

Explanation:

The Poona Pact of 1932 was a pivotal agreement between Mahatma Gandhi and B.R. Ambedkar.

• It was signed in response to the British government's Communal Award, which proposed separate electorates for Depressed Classes (Harijans).
• Gandhi, who was in jail, began a fast unto death in protest, fearing that separate electorates would further divide Hindu society.
• The Poona Pact replaced the separate electorates with reserved seats for the Depressed Classes within the general electorate.
• Following this pact, Gandhi intensified his efforts for the upliftment of Harijans, making it a central part of his constructive program and social reform agenda. He even founded the Harijan Sevak Sangh.

 

Question 75: Consider the following fruits:

I. Papaya                          

II. Pineapple                  

III. Guava

How many of the above men above were introduced in India by the Portuguese in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries?

(a) Only one                   

(b) Only two                   

(c) All the three                           

(d) None

Answer: (c) All the three

Explanation:

The Portuguese played a significant role in introducing several new crops and fruits to India during the 16th and 17th centuries, benefiting from their global trade routes.

• Papaya (I): Was introduced to India by the Portuguese.
• Pineapple (II): Was also introduced to India by the Portuguese from South America.
• Guava (III): Was introduced to India by the Portuguese from South America.

Therefore, all three of them were introduced by the Portuguese.

 

Question 76: Consider the following countries:

I. United Kingdom      

II. Denmark    

III. New Zealand         

IV. Australia  V. Brazil

How many of the above countries have more than four time zones?

(a) All the five                               

(b) Only four                   

(c) Only three                               

(d) Only two

Answer: (d) Only two.

Explanation:

Let's examine the number of time zones for each country:

I. United Kingdom: The UK (mainland) primarily uses one time zone (GMT/BST). However, including its overseas territories, it has a significant number of time zones (e.g., Gibraltar, Falkland Islands, etc.), far exceeding four.

II. Denmark: Denmark (mainland) uses one time zone. Including Greenland and the Faroe Islands, it has 4 time zones.

III. New Zealand: New Zealand uses two time zones (New Zealand Standard Time and Chatham Standard Time).

IV. Australia: Australia has multiple time zones across its vast landmass and external territories. It has more than four time zones.

V. Brazil: Brazil has 4 time zones.

 

Question 77: Consider the following statements:

I. Anadyr in Siberia and Nome in Alaska are a few kilometers from each other, but when people are waking up and getting set for breakfast in these cities, it would be different days.

II. When it is Monday in Anadyr, it is Tuesday in Nome.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only                            

(b) II only          

(c) Both I and II                            

(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (a) I only

Explanation:

This question tests knowledge of the International Date Line (IDL) and time zones.

Statement I: Anadyr, Russia, and Nome, Alaska, are indeed relatively close to each other, separated by the Bering Strait.

• The International Date Line runs through the Bering Strait.
• The IDL is the imaginary line on Earth's surface that defines the boundary between one calendar day and the next.
• When you cross the IDL going eastward, you subtract a day; when you cross it going westward, you add a day. Because of this, it is highly plausible that while geographically close, they could be on different calendar days if one is just before and the other is just after the IDL for a significant portion of the day.
• For example, if it's 8 AM on Monday in Nome, it could be 8 AM on Tuesday in Anadyr due to the IDL. So, Statement I is correct.

Statement II: When it is Monday in Anadyr, it is Tuesday in Nome. This directly contradicts the effect of crossing the International Date Line. If you are in Anadyr (west of the IDL) and move eastward to Nome (east of the IDL), you should go back a day. Therefore, if it's Monday in Anadyr, it would be Sunday in Nome. Thus, Statement II is incorrect.

 

Question 78: Who among the following was the founder of the 'Self-Respect Movement'?

(a) Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker

(b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

(c) Bhaskarrao Jadhav

(d) Dinkarrao Javalkar

Answer: (a) Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker

Explanation:

The Self-Respect Movement was a prominent movement in Tamil Nadu, India, that aimed to achieve a society in which backward castes had equal human rights and to eradicate caste, religious, and gender discrimination.

ü  Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker (often referred to simply as Periyar) founded the Self-Respect Movement in 1925.

Let's look at the other options:

• Dr. B. R. Ambedkar was a key figure in the Dalit rights movement and the drafting of the Indian Constitution, but he did not found the Self-Respect Movement.
• Bhaskarrao Jadhav and Dinkarrao Javalkar were also social reformers in Maharashtra, but they are not associated with the founding of the Self-Respect Movement.

 

Question 79: Consider the following pairs:

Country	Resource-rich in
I. Botswana	Diamond
II. Chile	Lithium
III. Indonesia	Nickel

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

(a) Only one                   

(b) Only two                   

(c) All the three                           

(d) None

Answer: (c) All the three

Explanation:

I. Botswana: Diamond - Correct. Botswana is one of the world's leading producers of gem-quality diamonds. Diamond mining is a significant contributor to its economy.

II. Chile: Lithium - Correct. Chile is the world's largest producer of lithium, which is crucial for electric vehicle batteries and other technologies. The Atacama Desert in Chile has vast lithium reserves.

III. Indonesia: Nickel - Correct. Indonesia is the world's largest producer of nickel. Nickel is vital for stainless steel production and increasingly for electric vehicle batteries.

 

Question 80: Consider the following pairs:

Region	Country
I. Mallorca	Italy
II. Normandy	Spain
III. Sardinia	France

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

(a) Only one                   

(b) Only two                   

(c) All the three                           

(d) None

Answer: (d) None

Explanation:

I. Mallorca: Italy - Incorrect. Mallorca (or Majorca) is one of the Balearic Islands, which are an autonomous community of Spain.

II. Normandy: Spain - Incorrect. Normandy is a historical and cultural region in northwestern France.

III. Sardinia: France - Incorrect. Sardinia is a large island in the Mediterranean Sea and an autonomous region of Italy.

 

Question 81: Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Some rare earth elements are used in the manufacture of flat television screens and computer monitors.

Statement II: Some rare earth elements have phosphorescent properties.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I

(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct

(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

Explanation:

Statement I: Some rare earth elements are used in the manufacture of flat television screens and computer monitors. This statement is correct. Rare earth elements like Europium, Terbium, Yttrium, and Cerium are crucial components in the production of phosphors for LCD and LED displays, allowing for vibrant colors.

Statement II: Some rare earth elements have phosphorescent properties. This statement is also correct. Phosphorescence is a type of photoluminescence where absorbed energy is re-emitted slowly as light. Many rare earth elements and their compounds exhibit phosphorescence, which is why they are used in displays, light-emitting diodes (LEDs), and other applications where light emission is desired.

• Relationship between statements: Statement II (phosphorescent properties) directly explains why rare earth elements are used in screens (Statement I). Their ability to emit light when energized is fundamental to their application in displays.

 

Question 82: Consider the following statements:

I. Indian Railways has proposed a National Rail Plan (NRP) to create a 'future ready' railway system by 2030.

II. 'Kavach' is an Automatic Train Protection System developed in collaboration with Germany.

III. 'Kavach' system consists of RFID tags fitted on track in station section.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only                             

(b) II and III only          

(c) I and III only            

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (d) I, II and III

Explanation:

Statement I: This statement is incorrect. The National Rail Plan for 2030 (NRP-2030) was indeed formulated by Indian Railways with the objective of creating a 'future ready' railway system by 2030.

Statement II: This statement is incorrect. 'Kavach' is an indigenously developed Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system by Indian Railways, Research Designs & Standards Organisation (RDSO). It was developed in collaboration with Indian vendors, not Germany.

Statement III: This statement is incorrect. While Kavach does use RFID technology, the system primarily relies on transponders (not just simple RFID tags) installed on tracks and in the locomotive, along with a continuous update of movement authority and other critical parameters through radio communication. It's a more complex system than just RFID tags in station sections. The primary components are trackside radio units, loco radio units, and computers in the locomotive.

 

Question 83: Consider the following space missions:

I. Artemis-I                     

II. SpaDeX                       

III. Gaganyaan

How many of the space missions given above encourage and support micro-gravity research?

(a) Only one                   

(b) Only two                   

(c) All the three                           

(d) None

Answer: (c) All the three.

Explanation:

I. Artemis-I: Artemis I was an uncrewed test flight of NASA's Artemis program, designed to test the Orion spacecraft and Space Launch System (SLS).

• While it was uncrewed, the Artemis program aims to return humans to the Moon and establish a sustained presence, which would undoubtedly involve microgravity research (e.g., in the Lunar Gateway or on the lunar surface). The program definitely supports microgravity research. The specific flight Artemis I was a test, but it paves the way for missions that will.

II. SpaDeX (Space Docking Experiment): SpaDeX is an ISRO mission aimed at demonstrating rendezvous and docking capabilities, crucial for future space stations and in-orbit servicing.

• While the primary objective is technical demonstration, the ability to dock and potentially create larger orbital structures (like a small space station) directly enables microgravity research by providing a stable platform. So, it supports microgravity research by enabling future platforms.

III. Gaganyaan: Gaganyaan is India's human spaceflight program. The primary objective is to send a crew to Low Earth Orbit (LEO).

• Human spaceflight missions inherently involve and conduct microgravity research (on the human body, materials science, biology, etc.) during their stay in orbit.

Conclusion: All three missions, directly or indirectly, or by paving the way for future missions, encourage and support microgravity research.

 

Question 84: With reference to India's defence, consider the following pairs:

Aircraft type	Description
I. Dornier-228	Maritime patrol aircraft
II. IL-76	Supersonic combat aircraft
III. C-17 Globemaster III	Military transport aircraft

 How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one                   

(b) Only two                   

(c) All the three                           

(d) None

Answer: (b) Only two.

Explanation:

I. Dornier-228 -  Maritime patrol aircraft: This pair is correct. The Dornier Do 228 is a twin-turboprop STOL utility aircraft. In India, it's widely used by the Indian Navy and Coast Guard for maritime surveillance, reconnaissance, and patrol duties.

II. IL-76  -  Supersonic combat aircraft: This pair is incorrect. The Ilyushin Il-76 is a multi-purpose four-engine strategic transport aircraft. It is NOT a supersonic combat aircraft. India uses the IL-76 primarily for military transport. Its combat variant, the Il-78, is used for aerial refueling.

III. C-17 Globemaster III - Military transport aircraft: This pair is correct. The Boeing C-17 Globemaster III is a large military transport aircraft that was used by the Indian Air Force for strategic airlift missions.

 

Question 85: Artificial way of causing rainfall to reduce air pollution makes use of

(a) silver iodide and potassium iodide

(b) silver nitrate and potassium iodide

(c) silver iodide and potassium nitrate

(d) silver nitrate and potassium chloride

Answer: (a) silver iodide and potassium iodide.

Explanation:

The process of artificial rain, also known as cloud seeding, involves introducing substances into clouds to encourage precipitation.

• The most commonly used substances as cloud seeding agents are silver iodide (AgI) and dry ice (solid carbon dioxide).
• Potassium iodide (KI) can also be used as a nucleating agent.

 

Question 86: Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India:

I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review.

II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only            

(b) II only          

(c) Both I and II            

(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (a) I only.

Explanation:

I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review. This statement is correct. While the President's pardoning power (under Article 72) is wide, the Supreme Court has clarified that it is not absolute and can be subjected to limited judicial review. This review is generally to ensure that the power has not been exercised arbitrarily, irrationally, or mala fide (in bad faith).

II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government. This statement is incorrect. The President of India is a constitutional head and acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers (Central Government) in almost all matters, including the exercise of the pardoning power. This is a fundamental principle of India's parliamentary system.

 

Question 87: Consider the following statements:

I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.

II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately.

III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only                             

(b) II and III only          

(c) I and III only            

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (c) I and III only

Explanation:

Statement I: Correct. Article 94(proviso) of the Indian Constitution states that "whenever the House of the People is dissolved, the Speaker shall not vacate his office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution." This ensures continuity.

Statement II: Incorrect. There is no constitutional provision or convention that requires the Speaker of the Lok Sabha to resign from their political party immediately upon election. While there has been debate and recommendations (e.g., by the National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution) for the Speaker to be apolitical, it is not a current constitutional requirement. Speakers often retain their party membership.

Statement III: Correct. Article 94(c) of the Indian Constitution states that a Speaker may be removed by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then members of the House. The proviso to Article 94 also specifies that no such resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.

 

Question 88: Consider the following statements:

I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President's decision in accordance with the opinion of the Election Commission of India shall be final.

II. There is no mention of the word 'political party' in the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above are/are correct?

(a) I only            

(b) II only          

(c) Both I and II            

(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (d) Neither I nor II

Explanation:

Statement I: Incorrect. The 10th Schedule (Anti-defection Law) was added to the Constitution by the 52nd Amendment Act of 1985.

• Under the 10th Schedule, the power to decide questions of disqualification on grounds of defection rests with the Speaker or the Chairman of the House, not the President in accordance with the Election Commission's opinion.
• The Supreme Court in the Kihoto Hollohan case (1992) held that the decision of the Speaker/Chairman in this regard is subject to judicial review.

Statement II: Incorrect. The word 'political party' is explicitly mentioned in the Constitution. It was introduced with the 10th Schedule (Anti-defection Law) via the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985.

• Paragraph 2(1)(a) of the 10th Schedule, for instance, refers to a member voluntarily giving up membership of his 'political party'.

 

Question 89: Consider the following statements:

Statement I: In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories.

Statement II: In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I

(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct

(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer: (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Explanation:

Statement I: Incorrect. State Governments do have the power to make rules for the grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals.

• The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 (MMDR Act) empowers the state governments to make rules for regulating the grant of quarry leases, mining leases, or other mineral concessions in respect of minor minerals.

Statement II: Correct. The Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals. Section 3(e) of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, defines "minor minerals."

• The Central Government can, by notification in the Official Gazette, declare any mineral to be a minor mineral.

 

Question 90: Which organization has enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss?

(a) The European Union

(b) The World Bank

(c) The Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development

(d) The Food and Agriculture Organization

Answer: (a) The European Union

Explanation:

The Nature Restoration Law (NRL) is a significant piece of environmental legislation enacted by the European Union.

• It aims to restore degraded ecosystems across the EU's land and sea areas, playing a crucial role in its efforts to address climate change and biodiversity loss.

 

Question 91: Consider the following statements:

I. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States.

II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years.

III. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes and duties, leviable by the State, between the State and Panchayats at the intermediate level.

Which of the statements given above are not correct?

(a) I and II only                             

(b) II and III only          

(c) I and III only            

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (d) I, II and III

Explanation:

Statement I: This is incorrect. Panchayats at the intermediate level (block/mandal parishad) are not constituted in States having a population of less than 20 lakh. So, they don't exist in all States.

Statement II: This is incorrect. The minimum age to be a member of a Panchayat (at any level) is 21 years, not 30 years.

Statement III: This is incorrect. It is the Governor of a State, not the Chief Minister, who constitutes a Finance Commission to review the financial position of Panchayats and recommend the distribution of taxes.

 

Question 92: Consider the following statements in respect of BIMSTEC:

I. It is a regional organization consisting of seven member States till January 2025.

II. It came into existence with the signing of the Dhaka Declaration, 1999.

III. Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand and Nepal are founding member States of BIMSTEC.

IV. In BIMSTEC, the subsector of 'tourism' is being led by India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I and II         

(b) II and III     

(c) I and IV       

(d) I Only

Answer: (d) I Only

Explanation:

Statement I: This is correct. BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation) indeed consists of seven member states (Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and Thailand). And as of January 2025, there haven't been any changes to its membership.

Statement II: This is incorrect. BIMSTEC was formed on June 6, 1997, with the signing of the Bangkok Declaration (not Dhaka Declaration). It was initially known as BIST-EC.

Statement III: This is incorrect. The founding members of BIMSTEC were Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, and Thailand. Nepal joined later (in 2004), so it was not a founding member.

Statement IV: This is incorrect. While BIMSTEC has various sectors, tourism is not explicitly stated as being led by India in official documents as a specific subsector lead. India often leads in areas like counter-terrorism and trans-national crime, transport and communication.

 

Question 93: Who amongst the following are members of the Jury to select the recipient of Gandhi Peace Prize?

I. The President of India

II. The Prime Minister of India

III. The Chief Justice of India

IV. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha

Select the correct answer code given below.

(a) II and IV only          

(b) I, II and III                 

(c) II, III and IV                              

(d) I and III only

Answer: (c) II, III and IV

Explanation:

The Jury for the Gandhi Peace Prize consists of:

• The Prime Minister of India (Chairperson)
• The Chief Justice of India
• The Leader of the largest Opposition Party in the Lok Sabha (Leader of Opposition)
• Two eminent persons selected by the Prime Minister.

Based on this, let's evaluate the statements:

Statement I: The President of India - Incorrect. The President is not a member of the Jury.

Statement II: The Prime Minister of India - Correct. The Prime Minister is the Chairperson.

Statement III: The Chief Justice of India - Correct.

Statement IV: The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha - Correct.

 

Question 94: GPS-Aided Geo Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) uses a system of ground stations to provide necessary augmentation. Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of GAGAN?

I. It is designed to provide additional accuracy and integrity.

II. It will allow more uniform and high quality air traffic management.

III. It will provide benefits only in aviation but not in other modes of transportation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) I, II and III                 

(b) II and III only          

(c) I only            

(d) I and II only

Answer: (d) I and II only

Explanation:

Statement I: This is correct. GAGAN is a Space Based Augmentation System (SBAS) that improves the accuracy and integrity of GPS signals, making them suitable for precision approaches in aviation.

Statement II: This is correct. By providing highly accurate and reliable positioning information, GAGAN significantly enhances air traffic management, leading to safer and more efficient flight operations.

Statement III: This is incorrect. While GAGAN's primary application is in aviation, its high accuracy and integrity signals have potential applications in other fields like railways, maritime, land surveying, and precision agriculture.

 

Question 95: Consider the following statements regarding AI Action Summit held in Grand Palais, Paris in February 2025:

I. Co-chaired with India, the event builds on the advances made at the Bletchley Park Summit held in 2023 and the Seoul Summit held in 2024.

II. Along with other countries, US and UK also signed the declaration on inclusive and sustainable AI.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I Only           

(b) II Only         

(c) Both I and II            

(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (a) I Only

Explanation:

Let's analyze the given statements about the AI Action Summit held in Grand Palais, Paris in February 2025:

Statement I:  The AI Action Summit in Paris (February 10-11, 2025) was indeed co-chaired by French President Emmanuel Macron and Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi. 

• Multiple sources confirm that this summit built on the advances made at the 2023 AI Safety Summit in Bletchley Park, UK, and the 2024 AI Seoul Summit in South Korea.
• Therefore, Statement I is correct.

Statement II: Along with other countries, US and UK also signed the declaration on inclusive and sustainable AI. 

• The summit resulted in 58 countries, including France, China, and India, signing a joint declaration called the "Statement on Inclusive and Sustainable Artificial Intelligence for People and the Planet."
• However, reports explicitly state that the United States and the United Kingdom did not sign this particular declaration.
• Therefore, Statement II is incorrect.

 

Question 96: Consider the following pairs:

I. International Year of the Woman Farmer - 2026

II. International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism - 2027

III. International Year of Peace and Trust - 2025

IV. International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence - 2029

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one                   

(b) Only two                   

(c) All the three                           

(d) None

Answer: (d) All the four

Explanation:

I. International Year of the Woman Farmer - 2026: The UN General Assembly declared 2026 as the International Year of the Woman Farmer. This is correctly matched.

 II. International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism - 2027: The UN General Assembly adopted a resolution on February 26, 2024, to declare 2027 as the International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism. This is correctly matched.

 III. International Year of Peace and Trust - 2025: The UN General Assembly declared 2025 as the International Year of Peace and Trust. This is correctly matched.

 IV. International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence - 2029: The UN General Assembly declared 2029 as the International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence in December 2024. This is correctly matched.

 

Question 97:  Consider the following statements with regard to BRICS:

I. 16th BRICS Summit was held under the Chairmanship of Russia in Kazan.

II. Indonesia has become a full member of BRICS.

III. The theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was Strengthening Multiculturalism for Just Global Development and Security.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I and II         

(b) II and III     

(c) I and III       

(d) I only

Answer: (c) I and III

Explanation:

Statement I: The 16th BRICS Summit is indeed scheduled to be held in Kazan, Russia. Russia holds the chairmanship for 2024. So, statement I is correct.

Statement II: Indonesia has not become a full member of BRICS. While there has been discussion about expansion, Indonesia has not officially joined. The recent expansion in January 2024 included Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab Emirates. So, statement II is incorrect.

Statement III: The theme for Russia's BRICS chairmanship in 2024 is "Strengthening Multiculturalism for Just Global Development and Security." This aligns with the provided statement. So, statement III is correct.

 

Question 98: Consider the following statements about Lokpal:

I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India.

II. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson.

III. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be.

IV. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) III only        

(b) II and III     

(c) I and IV       

(d) None of the above statements is correct

Answer: (a) III only

Explanation:

Statement I: The Lokpal's jurisdiction extends to public servants within and outside India. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, states that the Lokpal can inquire into allegations of corruption against any public servant as defined in the Act, irrespective of their posting location. So, statement I is incorrect.

Statement II: While the Chairperson or a Member of Lokpal cannot be a Member of Parliament or a State Legislature, the statement that only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson is incorrect.

• The Chairperson can be a former Chief Justice of India, or a former Judge of the Supreme Court, or an eminent person with special knowledge and experience in anti-corruption policy, public administration, vigilance, finance, law, or management. So, statement II is incorrect.

Statement III: As per the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, a person must not be less than forty-five years of age to be appointed as the Chairperson or a Member. So, statement III is correct.

Statement IV: The Lokpal has the power to inquire into allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister, with certain safeguards.

• For instance, such an inquiry cannot be conducted if it relates to international relations, security, public order, atomic energy, or space, unless a full bench of the Lokpal and at least two-thirds of its members approve of such an inquiry. So, statement IV is incorrect.

 

Question 99: Consider the following statements in respect of the first Kho Kho World Cup:

I. The event was held in Delhi, India.

II. Indian men beat Nepal with a score of 78-40 in the final to become the World Champion in men category.

III. Indian women beat Nepal with a score of 54-36 in the final to become the World Champion in women category.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only            

(b) II and III only          

(c) I and III only            

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (a) I only

Explanation:

I. The first Kho Kho World Cup (2025 edition) was held at the Indira Gandhi Arena in New Delhi, India, from January 13 to 19, 2025. So, statement I is correct.

II. Indian men's team beat Nepal in the final, but the score was 54-36. The 78-40 score was for the women's final. So, statement II is incorrect.

III. Indian women's team beat Nepal in the final with a score of 78-40. The 54-36 score was for the men's final. So, statement III is incorrect.

 

Question 100: Consider the following statements:

I. In the finals of the 45th Chess Olympiad held in 2024, Gukesh Dommaraju became the world's youngest winner after defeating the Russian player Ian Nepomniachtchi.

II. Abhimanyu Mishra, an American chess player, holds the record of becoming world's youngest ever Grandmaster.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only            

(b) II only          

(c) Both I and II            

(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (b) II only

Explanation:

Statement I: Gukesh Dommaraju did become the youngest undisputed World Chess Champion in 2024. However, this was the World Chess Championship match against Ding Liren, not the finals of the 45th Chess Olympiad.

• He won an individual gold medal at the 45th Chess Olympiad (which India also won as a team), and his World Championship match was later in 2024.
• Also, he defeated Ding Liren in the World Championship, not Ian Nepomniachtchi. Ian Nepomniachtchi was a contender in the Candidates Tournament, which Gukesh won to qualify for the World Championship. So, statement I is incorrect.

Statement II: Abhimanyu Mishra, an American chess player, holds the record for becoming the world's youngest-ever Grandmaster.

• He achieved this title at the age of 12 years, 4 months, and 25 days in June 2021. So, statement II is correct.